HESI A2 ENTRANCE EXAM: READING COMPREHENSION, CHEMISTRY, GRAMMAR, BIOLOGY, VOCABULARY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, CRITICAL THINKING, ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY AND MATH

HESI A2 ENTRANCE EXAM: READING COMPREHENSION, CHEMISTRY, GRAMMAR, BIOLOGY, VOCABULARY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, CRITICAL THINKING, ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY AND MATH VERSION 2 (With answers) Reading Comprehension Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion. Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects. 1. The author suggests that persistent passivity and imperturbability may be a direct result of which of the following? A. Drug-induced stimulation of the amygdala. B. A stroke that resulted in severe tissue damage in the limbic system C. Encephalitis as a result of head trauma D. Activation of a strategically implanted electrode in a patient’s amygdala. 2. Which statement is not listed as a detail within the passage? A. Electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme aggressive acts. B. Scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. C. Typically, temperamental rhesus monkeys with amygdala damage are completely imperturbable. D. Subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. 3. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The human brain is as complex as it is mysterious. B. Patients with damaged amygdalas are less aggressive than individuals with healthy ones. C. Electrode stimulation is a valuable tool for researchers who study the human brain. D. Scientists have learned a lot about how the amygdala affects human emotion. The Bicycle V2 Today, bicycles are so common that it’s hard to believe they haven’t always been around. But two hundred years ago, bicycles didn’t even exist, and the first bicycle, invented in Germany in 1818, was nothing like our bicycles today. It was made of wood and didn’t even have pedals. Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, dramatically improved upon the original bicycle design. Macmillan’s machine had tires with iron rims to keep them from getting worn down. He also used foot – operated cranks like pedals, so his bicycle could be ridden at a quick pace. It didn’t look much like a modern bicycle, though, because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel. In 1861, the French Michaux brothers took 4. The main idea of this passage is best explained in which sentence? A. Sentence (1): Today, bicycles are so common that it’s hard to believe they haven’t always been around. B. Sentence (13): It wasn’t until 1874 that the first truly modern bicycle appeared on the scene. C. Sentence (4): Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. D. Sentence (18): Today they are built, used, and enjoyed all over the world. 5. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? A. Bicycles are better B. A ride through the history of bicycles C. Cycle your way to fitness D. The popularity of bicycles 6. Sentence (8); It didn’t look much like a modern bicycle, through because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel, “follows which pattern? A. Fact, fact B. Fact, opinion C. Opinion, fact D. Opinion, opinion 7. Macmillan added iron rims to the tires of his bicycle to…. o Add wight to the bicycle o Makes the tires last longer o Makes the ride less bumpy o Makes the ride less tiring Jazz Jazz has been called "the art of expression set to music", and "America's great contribution to music". It has functioned as popular art and enjoyed periods of widespread public response, in the "jazz age" of the 1920s, in the "swing era" of the late 1930s and in the peak popularity of modern jazz in the late 1950s. The standard legend about Jazz is that it originated around the end of the 19th century in New Orleans and moved up the Mississippi River to Memphis, St. Louis, and finally to Chicago. It welded together the elements of Ragtime, marching band music, and the Blues. However, the influences of what led to those early sounds goes back to tribal African drumbeats and European musical structures. Buddy Bolden, a New Orleans barber and cornet player, is generally considered to have been the first real Jazz musician, around 1891. What made Jazz significantly different from the other earlier forms of music was the use of improvisation. Jazz displayed a break from traditional music where a composer wrote an entire piece of music on paper, leaving the musicians to break their backs playing exactly what was written on the score. In a Jazz piece, however, the song is simply a starting point, or sort of skeletal guide for the Jazz musicians to improvise around. Many of the early Jazz musicians were bad sight readers and some couldn't even read music at all. These early musicians couldn't make money very much and were stuck working menial jobs to make a living. The second wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians included such memorable players asJoe Oliver, Kid Ory, and Jelly Roll Morton. These men formed small bands and took the music of earlier musicians, improved its complexity, and gained greater success. This music is known as "hot Jazz" due to the enormously fast speeds and rhythmic drive. A young cornet player by the name of Louis Armstrong was discovered by Joe Oliver in New Orleans. He soon grew up to become one of the greatest and most successful musicians of all time, and later one of the biggest stars in the world. The impact of Armstrong and other talented early Jazz musicians changed the way we look at music. 8. Definition of confluence. a. Melding b. Influence c. Intersection d. Coming together 9. Where and when did jazz originate? Southern US. 20th century 10. How does the author regard Jazz? a. A real aficionado b. Unable to determine c. Doesn’t like it much d. Enjoys it occasionally 11. Derivation of the word “Jazz” West coast slang Electoral College The Electoral College has nothing to do with college and contains no students. The Electoral College consists of votes that each state acquires based on the number of representatives it has in Congress. Each state has two electoral votes because each state has two senators. The remaining electoral votes are determined by the number of Congressmen, the number of which is based on the population of the state established by the Census taken each decade. During the presidential election, most states cast all their electoral votes for the candidate who wins the popular vote in that state. It's all very confusing, but the founding fathers know what they were doing. By having and using the Electoral College candidates' campaign in every state, but just because they win the popular vote across the country doesn't mean they will always win the election. Case in point, in election 2000, Al Gore won the popular vote across the country, but George W. Bush won more electoral votes. Therefore, he became our 43rd president. 12. Which statement is a fact? Each state casts their electoral votes during the Presidential election. 13. What does cast mean? To give one’s vote 14. The author intends the ready to ? Have an understanding of the Electoral College. The Golden Gate Bridge Passage The Golden Gate Bridge is one of the most famous straits on the west coast of America. The narrow passage crosses the Pacific Ocean. Before the bridge, people traveled by boat. The Golden Garden Bridge is a suspension strain with to great of a risk for some residents. Joseph Strauss, chief engineer, overcame many technical problems. Risks were taken to complete the bridge, but the best and brightest worked on the challenge to build a bridge which connects the Pacific Ocean to San Francisco Bay. Strauss set a net installed beneath the gate that saved numerous lives because he was concerned for the safety of his workers. The workers started building at each end with big concrete blocks sunk deep into the ground which over 200 thick steel cables which the bridge would be suspended were to be anchored. The workers after completed the roadway which was the most dangerous task. Today, the famous west coast strait is a staple to San Francisco. Golden Gate Bridge Linking San Francisco to Marin County in California, the Golden Gate Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. The bridge crosses over a narrow strait which connects the Pacific Ocean to San Francisco Bay. Prior to the bridge, people traveled by ferry boat across the strait. Although most people thought a bridge was necessary to expedite travel, some residents of the Bay area felt the risk of building the bridge was too great. Joseph Strauss believed that nothing was impossible, and dreams would never come to fruition if risks weren’t taken. So, he decided to gather the best and brightest builders, architects, and workers to embark on the challenge of building a bridge across the Golden Gate Strait. With safety nets in place, the construction began in 1937. Building the anchorages first, the builders then move on to the towers on each end, and then to the three-foot thick cables to support the suspension bridge. Lastly, workers labored to complete the roadway which become the most dangerous and treacherous part of the entire task. The builders had to keep the bridge balance, so it wouldn’t fall into the bay. Today, over sixty-five years later, the bridge remains a lifeline for the people of the San Francisco Bay Area. 15. The authors’ reason for writing this piece seems to be to Inform the reader 16. 1What body of water does The Golden Gate Bridge cross? Golden Gate Strait 17. Why was the roadway so dangerous to build? If the road wasn’t balanced, it would collapse 18. In the passage the word embark means to Begin an undertaking, start 19. Which part of the bridge was built first? Anchorage 20. Where is The Golden Gate Bridge located specifically? A. West Coast B. San Francisco C. San Fernando D. America 21. Why did Strauss set a net? A. For suspension B. For balance C. For aesthetics D. For safety 22. Which part of the bridge was built first? A. Steel cables B. A net C. The roadway D. Concrete blocks 23. In passage the word strait means to A. A narrow passage B. Moving in one direction C. Move away aimlessly D. A roadway A bit about bicycles Today, bicycles are so common that it's hard to believe they haven't always been around. But two hundred years ago, bicycles didn't even exist, and the first bicycle, invented in Germany in 1818, was nothing like our bicycles today. It was made of wood and didn't even have pedals. Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, dramatically improved upon the original bicycle design. Macmillan's machine had tires with iron rims to keep them from getting worn down. He also used foot-operated cranks like pedals, so his bicycle could be ridden at a quick pace. It didn't look much like a modern bicycle, though, because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel. In 1861, the French Michaux brothers took the evolution of the bicycle a step further by inventing an improved crank mechanism. Ten years later, James Starley, an English inventor, revolutionized bicycle design. He made the front wheel many times larger than the back wheel, put a gear on the pedals to make the bicycle more efficient, and lightened the wheels by using wire spokes. Although this bicycle was much lighter and less tiring to ride, it was still clumsy, extremely top heavy, and ridden mostly for entertainment. It wasn't until 1874 that the first truly modern bicycle appeared on the scene. (14) Invented by another Englishman, H.J. Lawson, the "safety bicycle" would look familiar to today's cyclists. This bicycle had equal-sized wheels, which made it less prone to toppling over. Lawson also attached a chain to the pedals to drive the rear wheel. With these improvements, the bicycle became extremely popular and useful for transportation. Today they are built, used, and enjoyed all over the world. 24. About how long did it take for bicycles to look and feel like they do today? 53 centuries or 5300 years. 25. The author intended the reader to what? Understand a bit about the history of bicycles 26. Taste means? a. Perceiving a sensation on the tongue b. A sensation in the tongue c. A liking d. Ability to enjoy what is beautiful and harmonious 27. What has been added to the basic design of the bicycle? Gears and hand operated breaks 28. After reading this article the reader learned that ? Bicycling is gaining in popularity all over the world. The Moon The Moon has been worshipped by primitive peoples and has inspired humans to create everything from lunar calendars to love sonnets, but what do we really know about it? The most accepted theory about the origin of the Moon is that it was formed of the debris from a massive collision with the young Earth about 4.6 billion years ago. A huge body, perhaps the size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an immense amount of debris that coalesced and cooled in orbit around the Earth. The development of Earth is inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon’s gravitational influence upon the Earth is the primary cause of ocean tides. In fact, the Moon has more than twice the effect upon the tides than does the Sun. The Moon makes one rotation and completes a revolution around the Earth every 27 days, 7 hours, and 43 minutes. This synchronous rotation is caused by an uneven distribution of mass in the Moon (essentially, it is heavier on one side than the other) and has allowed the Earth’s gravity to keep one side of the Moon permanently facing Earth. It is an average distance from Earth of 384,403 km. The Moon has no atmosphere; without an atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to protect it from meteorite impacts, and thus the surface of the Moon is covered with impact craters, both large and small. The Moon also has no active tectonic or volcanic activity, so the erosive effects of atmospheric weathering, tectonic shifts, and volcanic upheavals that tend to erase and reform the Earth’s surface features are not at work on the Moon. In fact, even tiny surface features such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the lunar soil are likely to last for millions of years, unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. The surface gravity of the Moon is about one-sixth that of the Earth’s. Therefore, a man weighing 82 kilograms on Earth would only weigh 14 kilograms on the Moon. The geographical features of the Earth most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places such as the Hawaiian volcanic craters and the huge meteor crater in Arizona. The climate of the Moon is very unlike either Hawaii or Arizona, however; in fact the temperature on the Moon ranges between 123 degrees C. to –233 degrees C. 29. What is the passage primarily about? A. What we know about the Moon and its differences to Earth B. A comparison of the Moon and the Earth C. The Moon’s effect upon the Earth D. The origin of the Moon 30. The word “massive” in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. Dense B. Impressive C. Huge D. Unavoidable 31. The word “debris” in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. Earth B. Rubbish C. Moons D. Satellites 32. According to the passage, the Moon is A. Older than the Earth B. Composed of a few active volcanoes C. The primary cause of Earth’s ocean tides D. Protected by a dense atmosphere 33. The word “uneven “in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. Heavier B. Not uniform C. Orderly D. Equally distributed 34. Why does the author mention “impact craters” in line 16? A. To explain the corrosive effects of atmospheric weathering B. To explain why the Moon has no plant life because of meteorites C. To show the result of the Moon not having an atmosphere D. To show the result of the Moon not having active tectonic or volcanic activity 35. The word “erase” in line 19 is closest in meaning to A. Impact B. Erupt C. Change D. Obliterate 36. A person on the Moon would weigh less than on the Earth because A. The surface gravity of the Moon is less B. The Moon has no active tectonic or volcanic activity C. Of the composition of lunar soil D. The Moon has no atmosphere 37. All of the following are true about the Moon EXCEPT A. It has less effect upon the tides than the Sun B. It has a wide range of temperatures C. It is unable to protect itself from meteorite attacks D. It is heavier on one side than the other 38. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The Moon is not able to support human life B. If the Moon had no gravitational influence, the Earth would not have tides C. People living in Hawaii and Arizona would feel at home on the Moon D. Mars could have been formed in a similar way to the Moon 39. Why did the author write the passage? A. To summarize the main features of immigration B. To explain and give examples of the concept of a ―melting pot‖ C. To outline the ways immigration has been restricted D. To emphasize the impact of migrants from Europe A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use. 40. What is the major difference between matter at the nanoscale and matter at larger scales such as millimeters or inches? A. At the nanoscale, metals are bendable, and at larger scales they are rigid. B. Matter has different and special characteristics at the nanoscale. C. At the nanoscale, matter has the same properties as matter at the atomic level. D. There is no difference. 41. Which claim from the passage best describes the benefits of nanotechnology? A. Scientists can develop novel technologies and products. B. Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers. C. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. D. Unique properties of materials emerge. 42. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this essay? A. To explain how to utilize the nanoscale B. To review the conversion between the nanoscale and nanotechnology C. To advocate for the usage of more nanotechnology D. To describe nanotechnology and what it is Lightning Strike 43. The author seems to . Favor the use of lightning rods 44. The passage suggest lightning rods are used to what? Draw lightning away from buildings. 45. When taking cover from lightning, you should? Get into metal car, or lie flat 46. The reader can conclude that lightning? Consists of a main stroke and several smaller strokes. 47. The word penetrates means. To pierce Critical Thinking Questions 1. The Patient: A 65-year- old male. The Situation: The family brings the patient to the emergency room because he just took an entire bottle of pills. The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Determine the patient’s level of consciousness. 2. The Patient: An 80 year-old male who has used continuous oxygen for the past three years. The Situation: While making a home visit, the wife tells the nurse that her husband was doing well on 2 litres of oxygen per minute until late last night when he developed severe shortness of breath on the way to the bathroom. The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Assess the patient’s oxygen saturation by pulse oximeter. 3. The Patient: A 41-year-old male. The Situation: The patient is complaining of severe stomach pain and states that he has been ―vomiting all the time.‖ The Question: What should the nurse do first? Administer a prescribed pain medication. 4. The Patient: The wife of a wealthy owner of the town’s bank. The Situation: The patient and her husband arrive on the unit. While orienting the patient to the hospital room, the nurse notices that the patient has placed a large amount of cash and some expensive earrings in the drawer of the bedside table. The Question: What is the best action for the nurse to take? Advise the patient to have her husband take the items home when he leaves. 5. The Patient: A 45-year-old female who is 5’ 2‖ tall, weighs 200 pounds, and has smoked since age 21. The Situation: The patient comes to the clinic with a complaint of ―leg pain.‖ The Question: It is most important for the nurse to obtain information about which previous occurrence? A previous blood clot in the leg. 6. The Patient: A 61-year-old female. The Situation: The patient has a fever of unknown origin. The nurse administered a feverreducing medication 30 minutes ago. At this time there has been no decrease in the patient’s fever. The Question: What action would be best for the nurse to take? Sponge the patient with cool water. 7. The Patient: A 70-year-old male who is relatively healthy. The Situation: A liquid mediation is prescribed for this patient. The Question: Prior to administering the prescribed medication, what intervention has the highest priority? Determine if the patient is allergic to the medication. 8. The Patient: A fifty-eight-year-old female. The Situation: While the nurse is offering the patient her morning medications, she tells the nurse that she does not recall ever taking a pill that was pink-colored. The Question: What should the nurse do in response to this patient’s comment? Withhold the mediation until the patient’s prescription is verify. 9. The Patients: 1. A 63-year-old with a burn on the left lower leg who is complaining of pain. 2. A 45-year-old with pneumonia, complaining of shortness of breath. 3. A 31-year-old with abdominal pain who has just vomited blood. 4. An 88-year-old who has right-sided paralysis and wants to be helped to the bathroom immediately. The Situation: The nurse is caring for these patients. The Question: Who should the nurse see first? The 45-years old with pneumonia and shortness of breath. 10. The Patients: 1. A 13-year-old female with a kidney infection who reports that there is ―lots of blood‖ in her urine. 2. An 18-year-old male with acute alcohol poisoning who is seeing ―bugs on the walls.‖ 3. A 21-year-old female with inflammatory bowel disease who has soaked a dressing three hours after surgery. 4. A 25-year old male who is sobbing in his room after being told that he has testicular cancer. The Situation: The nurse is caring for these four patients. The Question: Who should the nurse see first? The 21-years old who is three hours postoperative and has a soaked dressing. 11. The Patients: 1. A 42-year-old with diabetes who is blind and is asking to get up and moved to a chair. 2. An 88-year-old with lower body paralysis who wants to be turned in bed. 3. A 17-year-old with asthma who smokes and has been in the bathroom for 30 minutes. 4. A 55-year-old with cardiac disease who tells the nurse, ―Get the TV fixed or I am leaving this place.‖ The Situation: The nurse is caring for these four patients. The Question: Which patient should the nurse see first? The 17-year old with asthma who may be smoking in the bathroom. 12. The Patient: An elderly female accompanied by her middle-aged son. The Situation: The patient is being discharged after 15-day stay on the medical unit, and the son offers the nurse a box of candy as a gesture of thanks for caring for his mother. The Question: What should the nurse do in response to the offer of this gift? Sincerely thank the son, and share the candy with all staff member on the unit. 13. The Patient: A 25-year-old female who has smoked since age 12. The Situation: The patient is complaining of ―skipped heart beats.‖ The Question: Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this patient? Call for assistance if she feels weak or dizzy when getting out of bed. 14. The Patient: A frail 88-year-old male who has recently become slightly confused. The Situation: The nurse is making a home visit and assesses the safety features of the home environment. The Question: Which suggestion would be most important for the nurse to provide the family? Eliminate any throw rugs from floor. 15. The Patient: A 55-year-old female with a family history of hypertension. The Situation: The patient is concerned about her health and states, ―I have had severe headaches for the last six months. I think I might have high blood pressure.‖ The nurse determines that the woman’s blood pressure is 138/86 (high normal). The Question: What action would be best for the nurse to take? Ask the patient about the frequency, timing and quality of her headaches. 16. The Patient: A 35-year-old female with a history of asthma. The Situation: The patient has been using a steroid inhaler because she is short of breath. However, she states that her shortness of breath is ―no better.‖ The Question: What is the most important information for the nurse to obtain? Method of using the inhaler. 17. The Patient: An older confused male. The Situation: At 3 a.m. the patient, who thinks he is in the bathroom, defecates in the bed. The bed needs to be changed. However, there are no bed sheets on the nursing unit. The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Ask a nursing assistant to go to another unit and borrow linen. 18. The Patient: A 25-year-old female hospitalized for anorexia. The Situation: The charge nurse denies the patient permission to pass dinner trays. The Question: What is the most important reason for the nurse to deny this anorexic patient permission to pass the dinner trays? Treatment protocol for anorexics mandates that they avoid preoccupation with food. 19. The Patient: A 75-year-old male who had a heart attack four years ago. The Situation: The patient tells the nurse, ―Even though I stopped smoking 10 years ago, I have a terrible cough.‖ The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Auscultate all lung fields 20. The Patient: A 70-year-old man dying of prostate cancer. The Situation: Nurse ―A,‖ who is charge of a medical unit, notices that a dying patient continues to moan in pain after receiving intravenous injections of morphins whenever Nurse ―B‖ is caring for him. Nurse ―A‖ suspects that Nurse ―B‖ may be diluting the patient’s dose and taking the morphine to feed an addiction. The Question: What should Nurse ―A‖ do in this situation? Notify the shift supervisor and unit director of the circumstances before taking action 21. The Patient: A 29-year-old male. The Situation: A lower leg cast was applied yesterday to a fractured leg. Today the patient tells the nurse that he is in ―terrible pain.‖ The Question: Which action is most important for the nurse to take? Check the patient’s toes for adequate circulation. 22. The Patient: A 54-year-old male who weighs 275 pounds. He is 5’ 10‖ tall and has many family members who have died of heart disease. The Situation: He comes to the clinic stating that he has had several episodes of ―chest pain‖ in the last week. The Question: What is the most important action for the nurse to take? Ask the patient to describe the chest pain. 23. The Patient: A 7-year-old child. The Situation: A nurse arrives with an injection containing preoperative sedation that must be given to the child now. The child asks the nurse if the shot will hurt. The Question: What response should the nurse offer to this child? ―Yes, but it won’t last very long and soon you will be sleepy‖ 24. The Patient: A 35-year-old female. The Situation: The patient is admitted with a diagnosis of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The Question: Which action should the nurse take first? Initiate Intravenous fluids. 25. The Patient: A 51-year-old male. The Situation: The patient is pale, has dark circles under his eyes, and responds to questions with a soft, low voice. He tells the nurse that he has not slept well for months, but denies any type of pain. The Question: What information is most important for the nurse to obtain? The existence of a significant life in the last year that has caused anxiety. 26. The Patient: A 19-year-old male who has previously been healthy. The Situation: The patient complains that he is losing weight despite ―eating all the time.‖ The Question: Considering this patient’s age and complaint, which diagnostic test is likely to provide the most important information? A fingerstick for blood sugar level. 27. The Patient: An adult with diabetes mellitus who was just given a morning does of insulin which lowers the blood sugar. The Situation: The patient’s breakfast tray arrives, and the nurse notices that the pancake syrup and sugar packets have not been substituted with products containing artificial sweeteners. The Question: What should the nurse do first in this situation? Remove foods containing sugar and offer sugar substitutes. 28. The Patient: A terminally ill male. The Situation: Nurse ―A‖ and an unidentified woman ride the elevator to the fifth floor, Nurse ―B‖ joins them on the elevator and exclaims that a code has just been called on a male patient on the fifth floor, and he is not expected to live. The Question: What should Nurse ―A‖ do in this situation? Tell Nurse B stop discussing the client’s situation in a public place. 29. The Patient: An elderly confused female in a semi-private room on a hospital medical unit. The Situation: The patient is yelling loudly at 3:30a.m. and awakens her roommate, who calls the nurse for assistance. The Question: What should the nurse do first in this situation? Assess the confused patient for causes of her behaviour. 30. The Patient: A 75-year-old male. The Situation: The family brings the patient to the emergency room because they witnessed him have a seizure. The patient is hallucinating, and loudly cries out to the nurse, ―Get those dogs out of here!‖ The nurse places the patient in a cubicle where he can be seen from the nurse’s station. The Question: What action would be best for the nurse to take? Ask the family to remain with the patient. Vocabulary and General Knowledge 1. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The patient was diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder. A. rule B. system C. organization D. illness 2. Select the word that means ―brief, to the point.‖ The teacher’s instructions were concise, so the student was able to complete the project in a reasonable period of time. A. period B. concise C. complete D. reasonable 3. What word meaning ―once a year‖ fits best in the sentence? The family reunion picnic was held at the Jones farm instead of the county park. A. regular B. annual C. biennial D. holiday 4. Docile is best defined as being . A. defiant B. disobedient C. firm D. compliant 5. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Because the patient had an occluded artery, the physician decided to perform cardiovascular surgery. A. Obstructed B. Open C. Broken D. Cloudy 6. Select the word that means ―an undesired problem that is the result of some other event.‖ The complication of the surgery caused the patient to remain in the hospital to have an additional complement of testing procedures implemented. A. Complication B. Complement C. Procedures D. Implemented 7. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The dog developed bilateral weakness in its hindquarters, so the veterinarian created a wheeled cart to help the dog walk. A. Present on two sides B. Available for exercise C. Affecting the left side D. Affecting the right side 8. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The doctor’s prognosis gave the patient and his family reason to feel optimistic about the surgery. A. Instructions B. Estimate C. Behavior D. Outcome statement 9. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The child developed a labile condition that worried the parents, so they brought the child to the doctor’s office for a checkup. A. Fevered B. Volatile C. Stomach D. Vision 10. The nurse noted in the chart, ―The patient is lethargic.‖ How was the patient behaving? A. Pacing the halls, yelling at the staff B. Difficult to arouse C. Shaking uncontrollably D. Not responding to painful stimuli 11. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The doctor made an initial examination of the patient. A. Complete B. First C. Incomplete D. Discharge 12. Select the word or phrase that will identify the correct meaning of the underlined word. Progeny is a term used to describe a person’s . A. creditors B. offspring C. hereditary disease D. health status 13. What is the best description for the word distal? A. The part of the heart that receives blood from the lungs B. Urgent C. The part of the body farthest from the injury D. Empathetic 14. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The incidence of smoking has decreased in recent years because of the effectiveness of advertising campaigns. A. Prestige B. Glamour C. Occurrence D. Influence 15. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The symmetrical nature of the artwork allowed it to be viewed from many angles. A. Measured from the center B. Colorful C. Equal on all sides D. Whimsical 16. Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. Within the of the hospital, great emphasis is placed on calmness. A. cafeteria B. milieu C. metabolism D. component 17. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The verbal instructions given by the instructor allowed the student to create an outstanding project. A. Written B. Detailed C. Oral D. Permissive 18. What is the best description for the term quotient? A. The minimum number of members needed to be present for a vote to be valid B. The protocol used when a sterile field must bemaintained C. A math term naming the answer in a division question D. The preferred inoculation site for a newborn infant 19. Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. The nurse has a to the Journal of NursingEducation. A. subscription B. prescription C. recipe D. receipt 20. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The proliferation of text messaging among teens has alarmed parents. A. Increase B. Summarization C. Ambiance D. Rampant 21. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. It is important that the bandage remain intact. A. Dry B. Whole C. Uncovered D. Secure 22. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. It is not wise to skimp on personal hygiene. A. Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health B. Financial resources available through the employment department C. Insurance D. Friendliness 23. The patient fractured the lateral portion of the hip bone, which is known as the . A. ilium B. ileum C. icterus D. ileus 24. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The parameters of medical ethics require the nurse to report instances of suspected child abuse. A. Laws B. Limits C. Common sense D. Structure 25. Select the correct order of words to fit in the sentence structure. The nursing put the Band- on the wound to the nurse. A. aid, aide, aide B. aide, aid, aid C. aid, aide, aid D. aide, aid, aide 26. A person who is ravenous is . A. generous B. outspoken C. friendly D. hungry 27. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. His skin was unevenly pigmented by the disease. A. Scarred B. Spotted C. Broken D. Colored 28. Which word means ―the thickness of a liquid"? A. Viscosity B. Zygote C. Sublingual D. Adhesion 29. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The gaping hole in the fence was an enticing lure for the curious toddler. A. Narrow B. Jagged C. Painted D. Wide open 30. What is the best description for the term febrile? A. Mental incompetence B. Having a fever C. Pregnant D. Having clogged sinuses 31. What is the best description for the word contraction? A. Spasm B. Decrease C. Treaty D. Moderate 32. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse discussed the diet plan with the patient. A. Regime B. Regimen C. Supposition D. Substitution 33. What is the best description for the term combination? A. Putting two or more things together B. The beginning of a fire C. The reason for an action D. The change seen when a drug is administered 34. Decomposition is the process of enzymes digesting food. Another name for this process is . A. degeneration B. dialysis C. lysis D. lymph 35. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse noticed an audible gurgle when doing a physical examination on the patient. A. Observable B. Spasmodic C. Ominous D. Perceptible 36. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse observed that the skin around the sore was inflamed. A. Blanched B. Covered with a scab C. Cool to the touch D. Reddened 37. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The nurse gave instructions to the patient on the care of his renal disease. A. Fatal B. Kidney C. Heart D. Lung 38. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Endogenous factors were responsible for his illness. A. Produced within the body B. Produced outside the body C. Polluting D. Hemocratic 39. Which word is not spelled correctly in the context of the sentence? The ICU nurse-manger wanted all staff to sign the letter complaining about working hours at the unit. A. ICU B. sign C. manger D. complaining 40. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. When examined, the laboring mother was at 50% dilation. A. Blood pressure B. Cervical opening C. Birth process D. Exhumation 41. Which word is not spelled correctly in the context of this sentence? The nurse went form room to room looking for the missing patient. A. patient B. form C. nurse D. missing 42. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. To alleviate his pain, the nurse gave the patient a PRN medication. A. Pinpoint B. Relocate C. Eradicate D. Reduce 43. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Being bilingual is an advantage for a nurse. A. Able to speak more than one language B. Able to use either hand with equal skill and ease C. Not squeamish when seeing blood D. Can remember everything that is read 44. Select the word that means ―both male and female.‖ A. monozygotic B. heterogeneous C. homologous D. androgynous 45. What is the meaning of terrestrial? A. alien B. earthly C. foreign D. domestic 46. Select the word that means ―improper or unfortunate.‖ A. allocated B. untoward C. flaccid D. dilated 47. Select the meaning of the underlined word in thissentence: At first, Gerald suspected that he had caught the disease at the office; later, though, he concluded that it was endogenous. A. contagious B. painful to the touch C. continuous D. growing from within 48. What is the meaning of symptom? A. result B. indication C. side effect D. precondition 49. Select the word that means ―intrusive.‖ A. convulsive B. destructive C. invasive D. connective 50. What is the meaning of parameter? A. guideline B. standard C. manual D. variable Grammar 1. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Why did we try so hard? A. has to B. haven’t C. had to D. have to 2. Select the word that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Tracey wore her hair in a French braid, was the style at the time. A. among B. it C. that D. which 3. Select the phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Working the mission of the entire committee. A. to peace is B. toward peace was C. to peace was D. toward peace am 4. Select the phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Janet called her run after a squirrel. A. dog, who had B. dog that had C. dog, that had D. dog who had 5. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. After completing the intense surgery, Dr. Capra needed a long . A. brake B. break C. brink D. broke 6. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The other day, Stan reviewing his class notes in preparation for the final exam. A. begins B. begun C. begin D. began 7. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. It makes sense to maintain your current prescriptions, they have worked so well in the past. A. although B. despite that C. since D. but 8. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. It seems like his blood pressure every week. A. rises B. raises C. raise D. rise 9. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence correct. their similar training, the two professionals drew radically different conclusions. A. Because of B. Among C. Despite D. Now that 10. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Each of the two European capitals named after a famous leader. A. are B. am C. as D. is 11. Which word is not used correctly in the context of the following sentence? Before you walk any further, beware of the approaching traffic. A. before B. further C. beware D. approaching 12. What word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? The little boy sat the red block atop the stack. A. little B. sat C. atop D. stack 13. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Even though she was new, Lauren knew that the patient’s name would be an ethical violation. A. divulge B. to divulge C. to divulging D. divulged 14. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. The attendant looked at everything related to the problem. A. close B. closet C. closely D. closedly 15. What word or phrase is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Henry intuitively understood the doctor’s illusion to his long-term depression. A. intuitively B. illusion C. long-term D. depression 16. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. If you want to join the club, you contact the coach by Thursday. A. would B. should C. did D. have 17. Select the word that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Andy has up a law practice of his own. A. seat B. set C. sit D. sat 18. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. He decided to buy a large coal furnace because he felt it would be than a woodstove. A. more efficient B. efficienter C. more efficienter D. efficiency 19. What word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? It is amazing how many soccer players has developed knee problems over the years. A. many B. players C. has D. developed 20. Select the word that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. She asked to take her around the corner to the drugstore. A. him B. his C. he D. his’ 21. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Felix was pleased the progress he had made in his program. A. among B. with C. regards D. besides 22. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. After waking up, Dean eyed the cheesecake . A. hungry B. hungriest C. hungrily D. more hungry 23. Which word is not used correctly in the context of the following sentence? After ringing up the nails, the cashier handed Nedra her recipe and change. A. ringing B. cashier C. recipe D. change 24. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. Sharon felt about how her speech had gone. A. well B. good C. finely D. happily 25. Select the word that correctly completes the following sentence. The intern was surprised by the of pain he was in after his first day of work. A. amount B. frequency C. number D. amplitude 26. What word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Whoever wrote the letter forgot to sign their name. A. Whoever B. wrote C. their D. name 27. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: The child’s fever was high for him to lie comfortably in bed. A. to B. much C. too D. more 28. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Sometimes, the condition with an unusual symptom—vertigo. A. presence B. presents C. present D. prescience 29. Which word is not used correctly in the context of the following sentence? There is no real distinction among the two treatment protocols recommended online. A. real B. among C. protocols D. online 30. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct. The patient was cold, so he asked the nurse for another blanket. A. too B. not C. to D. so much 31. Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. Because I want to go to the movies later, I am going my homework now. a. to do b. doing c. be doing d. to doing 32. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct. He sat Holly and Mary on the bus. a. though b. through c. among d. between 33. Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly. The data confirms that the patient is suffering from extreme anxiety, and a tranquilizing medication is immediately required. a. extreme anxiety b. confirms c. is d. immediately 34. Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. The professor had a huge of tests to grade. a. number b. amount c. aggregate d. stacks 35. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Will you learn me how to do origami? a. me b. will c. learn d. origami 36. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The members of the group to be seated together. a. wanting b. want c. wants d. waiting 37. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The student completed the test . a. quite b. quick c. quitely d. quickly 38. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. The student thought the second test was than the first test. a. harder b. more hard c. hardest d. most hardest 39. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The dog wagged tail when the food dish was filled. a. the b. one’s c. its d. it’s 40. What word is best to substitute for the underlined words in the following sentence? The boy watched the lights in the house go off. a. Him b. His c. They d. He Biology 1. How do phospholipids function in cells? A. They are integral components of the nuclear membrane. B. They are integral components of the cytoplasmic skeleton. C. They are integral components of the mitochondrial membranes. D. They are integral components of the plasma membrane. 2. Which of the biologic molecules are considered the most significant contributor to cellular function? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids 3. Proteins are polymers of which of the following? A. Monosaccharides B. Amino acids C. Fatty acids D. Nucleotides 4. Which of the following proteins catalyze different reactions or processes? A. Keratin B. Hormone C. Enzyme D. Collagen 5. Which of the biologic molecules are components of the molecules of inheritance? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids 6. What is the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism? A. Catalysis B. Metabolism C. Catabolism D. Anabolism 7. In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called: A. Metabolic pathways B. Chemical bonding C. Synthesis D. Hydrolysis 8. What is the fundamental unit of biology? A. Atom B. Cell C. Tissue D. Organ 9. Which type of cell contains no defined nucleus? A. Prokaryotic cell B. Eukaryotic cell C. Animal cell D. Protest cell 10. What is the primary purpose of the flagella on the surface of cells? A. Movement of the cell B. Removal of cellular waste C. Replication of chromosomes D. Production of energy 11. Which cell organelle functions to transport materials from the endoplasmic reticulum throughout the cell? A. Ribosome B. Golgi apparatus C. Lysosome D. Vacuole 12. Which of the following are the distinct organelles that produce cell energy? A. Mitochondrion and chloroplast B. Mitochondrion and nucleus C. Chloroplast and nucleus D. Chloroplast and lysosome 13. Which component of the cell contributes to the protection, communication, and passage of substances into and out of the cell? A. Nucleus B. Cell membrane C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Cytoplasm 14. The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of phospholipids with proteins, cholesterol, and glycoproteins. This bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between two layers of lipids, making it which of the following? A. Impermeable B. Permeable C. Selectively permeable D. Selectively impermeable 15. What are the two catabolic pathways that lead to cellular energy production? A. Fermentation and internal respiration B. Fermentation and external respiration C. Fermentation and cellular respiration D. Fermentation and anaerobic respiration 16. What is the first step in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Electron transport chain D. Aerobic respiration 17. Which step in cellular respiration yields the greatest amount of ATP? A. Glycolysis B. Krebs cycle C. Electron transport chain D. Fermentation 18. During cell respiration, the conversion of glucose results in an overall production of how many ATP molecules? A. 2 B. 16 C. 18-24 D. 32-36 19. What is the function of water in photosynthesis? A. Combine with carbon dioxide B. Absorb light energy C. Supply electrons in the light reactions D. Transport hydrogen ions in the dark reactions 20. Cells reproduce by different processes, all of which fall into what two categories? A. Sexual reproduction and binary fission B. Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction C. Asexual reproduction and binary fission D. Asexual reproduction and mitosis 21. Which of the following describes how a bacterium reproduces? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Binary fission D. Cytokinesis 22. Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants: A. The spindles contain cellulose microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils. B. Sister chromatids are identical, whereas in animals they differ from one another. C. A cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage. D. Chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase. 23. During which phase of cell reproduction does the cell divide forming two separate identical cells? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Cytokinesis 24. How does meiosis differ from mitosis? A. In meiosis, each of the daughter cells contains twice as many chromosomes as the parent. B. In meiosis, each of the daughter cells contains half as many chromosomes as the parent. C. In meiosis, each of the daughter cells is completely identical to the parent. D. Meiotic division occurs in all body cells, whereas in mitosis the cells only divide in the gonads. 25. At which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur? A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Metaphase I D. Metaphase II Chemistry 1. Which of the following describes the atomic mass? A. Mass of protons and electrons B. Mass of neutrons and electrons C. Average mass of that element’s isotopes D. Number of moles in a solution 2. Chemical equations are written in which manner? A. Product → Reactants B. Reactants → Products C. Reactants + Reactants D. Products + Reactants 3. What is the charge on potassium in the compound KCl? A. −1 B. +1 C. −2 D. +2 4. A catalyst is a substance that accelerates a reaction by which of the following? A. Adding energy to the overall reaction B. Increasing the amount of energy needed for the reaction to occur C. Finding an alternate pathway for a reaction that requires less energy D. Speeding up the overall reaction process 5. Percent concentration of a solution is expressed as which of the following? A. 100 parts per 100 dL B. Parts per 100 parts C. Parts of moles D. Moles per 100 parts 6. What will one liter of a one molar solution of any element contain? A. The atomic mass in grams of that element B. The atomic number in grams of that element C. The atomic mass in liters of that element D. The atomic number in liters of that element 7. Chemical bonding is the bonding of which of the following? A. One atom to another atom B. One mole to another mole C. A proton to an electron D. One cation to another cation 8. Which of the following describes an ionic bond? A. It shares electrons. B. It does not share electrons. C. It is sometimes called a covalent bond. D. It is the strongest of all chemical bonds. 9. The reaction 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O has a ratio of 2 parts ethane (C2H6) and 7 parts oxygen (O2). How many parts of ethane (C2H6) will be needed to react with 21 parts of oxygen (O2)? A. 3 parts of ethane C2H6 B. 6 parts of ethane C2H6 C. 9 parts of ethane C2H6 D. 14 parts of ethane C2H6 10. What is the concentration of 58.5 g of NaCl in 2 L of solution (atomic weights of each element are as follows: Na = 23 g/mol, Cl = 35.5 g/mol)? A. 0.5 mol NaCl B. 0.75 mol NaCl C. 1 mol NaCl D. 2 mol NaCl 11. In a redox reaction, which of the following describes reduction? A. It is the loss of electrons. B. It is the gain of protons. C. It is the loss of a neutron. D. It is the gain of electrons. 12. What are acids? A. Hydrogen acceptors B. Solutions of high pH C. Hydrogen donors D. Amphoteric 13. What is a benefit of water’s ability to make hydrogen bonds? A. Lack of cohesiveness B. Low surface tension C. Use as a nonpolar solvent D. High specific heat 14. What are bases or alkaline solutions? A. Hydrogen acceptors B. Solutions of low pH C. Hydrogen donors D. Amphoteric 15. Chemical reactions in living systems proceed along catabolic pathways, and there tends to be an increase in which of the following? A. Entropy B. Enthalpy C. Glucose D. Glycogen 16. What is a pH of 7? A. Acidic B. Basic C. Neutral D. Positive 17. Which is the correct way to write Iodine (I) with an atomic mass of 131? A. I131 B. I131 C. 131I D. 131I 18. What is the correct formula for magnesium chloride? A. MgCl2 B. MgCl C. Mg2Cl D. Mg2Cl2 19. What is the weakest of all the intermolecular forces? A. Dispersion B. Dipole interactions C. Hydrogen bonding D. Covalent bonding 20. Beta radiation is the emission of which of the following? A. Large numbers of helium ions B. An electron C. High energy electromagnetic radiation D. A product of the decomposition of a proton 21. Which of the following describes carbohydrates? A. They serve as fuel for the body. B. They are present in DNA but not in RNA. C. They are the least abundant biomolecule. D. They cannot be stored in the body. 22. What are monosaccharides? A. The simplest form of carbohydrates B. The most complex form of carbohydrates C. One form of a very complex fat D. Artificial sweeteners such as saccharin 23. Disaccharides are the joining together of which of the following? A. Three to six monosaccharides B. Two monosaccharides C. A number of monosaccharides D. A fat and a monosaccharide 24. Glycolysis is one of the body’s chemical pathways for which of the following? A. Manufacturing glycogen B. Building proteins C. Producing fats D. Metabolizing glucose 25. An experiment is performed to measure the temperature of boiling water at sea level. The actual boiling point is 104.6° C, 104.5° C, and 104.4° C. What term best describes these data? A. Accurate B. Precise C. Variable D. Equivalent Anatomy and Physiology 1. A tissue examined under the microscope exhibits the following characteristics: cells found on internal surface of stomach, no extracellular matrix, cells tall and thin, no blood vessels in the tissue. What type of tissue is this? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscle D. Cartilage E. Nervous 2. Nerve tissue is composed of neurons and connective tissue cells that are referred to as which of the following? A. Osteoblasts B. Neuroglia C. Osteocytes D. Arterioles 3. Which tissue serves as the framework of the body by providing support and structure for the organs? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Nervous D. Muscle 4. What is the basic unit of life and the building block of tissues and organs? A. Atom B. Organelle C. Cell D. DNA 5. Which type of cell division takes place in the gonads? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Binary fission D. Asexual division 6. In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? A. Back of the hand B. Heel of the foot C. Abdomen D. Over the shin 7. What are the glands of skin that produce a thin, watery secretion? A. Sebaceous glands B. Eccrine glands C. Apocrine glands D. Endocrine glands 8. Skin aids in maintaining the calcium and phosphate levels of the body by participating in the production of which of the following? A. Sebum B. Keratin C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin D 9. Which of the following are functions of the skeletal system? (Select all that apply.) A. Support the body B. Hemopoiesis C. Conduct impulses D. Provide protection 10. The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the middle region of the humerus. What is he describing? A. Epiphysis B. Articular cartilage C. Perichondrium D. Diaphysis 11. You have been given a sample of tissue that has open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needlelike structures. What is the tissue? A. Spongy bone B. Compact bone C. Cartilage D. Adipose tissue 12. Which of the following bones is the only moveable bone of the skull? A. Maxilla B. Zygomatic C. Lacrimal D. Mandible 13. Which mineral is responsible for regulating fluid in the body? A. Chloride B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 14. Why are skeletal muscles also called voluntary muscles? A. They are under conscious control. B. They are attached to the skeleton. C. They use ATP to energize contraction. D. They are striated in appearance. 15. All actions of the nervous system depend on the transmission of nerve impulses over which of the following? A. Neuroglia B. Efferent pathways C. Afferent pathways D. Neurons 16. Motor or neurons transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS. A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Central D. Peripheral 17. Jeffery has contracted bulbar poliomyelitis, and it has affected the medulla oblongata. The doctors warned the family that his condition is grave and death may be imminent. What functions of the medulla oblongata have warranted such a dire prognosis? A. The medulla oblongata contains vital centers that control heart action, blood vessel diameter, and respiration. B. The medulla oblongata contains neural connections of the reticular-activating system. C. The medulla oblongata contains the pineal gland, which controls the vital centers. D. The medulla oblongata contains the corpora quadrigemina, which controls the neural transmission of impulses along the spinal cord. 18. All the nutrients that enter the hepatic portal vein are routed where for decontamination? A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver 19. Which are the functional units of the kidney? A. Ureters B. Glomeruli C. Nephrons D. Renal capsules 20. What are the two functions of the male and female sex organs? A. Production of all cells and production of hormones B. Production of interstitial cells and production of hormones C. Production of gametes and production of hormones D. Production of gametes and production of interstitial cells 21. In men, spermatozoa develop within the of each testis. A. Seminiferous tubules B. Vas deferens C. Ejaculatory ducts D. Bulbourethral glands 22. Testicular activity is under the control of which hormone(s)? A. FSH B. LH C. GH D. Both FSH and LH 23. Which hormone initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy? A. FSH B. Estrogen C. LH D. Progesterone 24. During pregnancy, what organ produces the hormones that maintain the endometrium and prepare the breasts for milk production? A. Placenta B. Uterus C. Cervix D. Corpus luteum 25. Vasodilation and vasoconstriction result from which of the following? A. Contraction of smooth muscle in the arterial wall B. Relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterial wall C. Relaxation and contraction of smooth muscle in the arterial wall D. Contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in the venous wall MATH 1. L = 5000 ML 2. Convert 8.08 to a fraction and reduce. 3. 3:100::X:60 4. Convert 0.07 to a ratio. 5. Convert 4/5 to a decimal. 6. There is 7 girls and each girl have 7 cats, how many legs are in the group? 7. Convert 11am to military time 8. Divide: 5 ½ and 2 ½ 9. Add: 12/3 and 4/7 10. Multiply: 3 2/11 x 2 1/5 11. How many meters are in a kilometer? (Enter numeric value only.) 12. How many grams are in a kilogram? (Enter numeric value only.) 13. To convert pounds to kilograms, what factor is used? A. 2.2 B. 0.334 C. 10 D. 22 14. A teacher’s aide is preparing a snack for the class. In order to prepare the powdered drink, the aide must convert the directions from metric. The directions say, ―Dilute contents of package in 2 liters of water.‖ The aide has a measuring device marked in ounces. How many ounces of water should be used? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.) 15. How many milliliters are in 1 liter? A. 30 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1,000 16. There are 2.54 cm in an inch. How many centimeters are in 1 foot? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 17. A seamstress is measuring a model for a new dress. The tape measure is marked in centim