NPTE Practice Questions

NPTE Practice Questions The lymphatic system drains lymph from body tissues and returns it to the: A.) Nervous system B.) Cardiac circulation C.) Venous circulation D.) Muscles C.) Venous circulation In regards to arthrokinematics, what is the movement between the metacarpal of the hand and the proximal phalanx? .A.) Glide B.) Roll C.) Spin D..) Extension A.) Glide The PTA is reviewing the PT's evaluation of a patient with torticollis. The patient has torticollis with right SCM involvement. Which of the following will the patient present with? A.) Neck side-bending toward the L and rotation to the L B.) Neck side-bending toward the R and rotation to the L C.) Neck side-bending toward the R and rotation to the R D.) Neck side-bending toward the L and rotation to the R B.) Neck side-bending toward the R and rotation to the L In which direction do most dislocations of the glenohumeral joint occur? A.) Anterior-inferior B.) Posterior-inferior C.) Posterior D.) Superior A.) Anterior-inferior The PT performs an evaluation for a 75 year-old woman who endured a stroke. She is classified as stage 3 on the Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery scale. What motor presentation can the PTA expect? A.) Flaccidity, no voluntary movement B.) Voluntary movement possible but only in synergies, high spasticity C.) Control and coordination near normal D.) Voluntary control in isolated joint movements, declining of spasticity and synergies B.) Voluntary movement possible but only in synergies, high spasticity A PTA is preparing to work with a patient who has suffered a TBI. The evaluation states that the patient is a Level III on the Rancho Los Amigos level of cognitive function. What can the therapist expect of this patient? A.) Confused-agitated: The patient is in a heightened state of activity. His behavior is bizarre and non-purposeful relative to environment. His is unable to cooperate directly with treatment efforts B.) Localized response: The patient reacts specifically but inconsistently to stimuli. The patient may follow simple commands in an inconsistent and delayed manner such as squeezing the hand or closing eyes C.) No response: Patient appears to be in a deep sleep and completely unresponsive to stimulation D.) Automatic-appropriate: The patient appears appropriate and oriented within the hospital and home settings but has shallow recall of activities. Judgment is still impaired. B.) Localized response: The patient reacts specifically but inconsistently to stimuli. The patient may follow simple commands in an inconsistent and delayed manner such as squeezing the hand or closing eyes. Which of the following is NOT an example of a goal and indication for superficial thermotherapy? A.) Increase muscle tone B.) Increase connective tissue extensibility C.) Modulate pain D.) Accelerate tissue healing A.) Increase muscle tone In regards to thermotherapy, which condition would be BEST suited for heat application utilizing paraffin? A.) Rotator cuff tear B.) Rheumatoid arthritis of the hand and digits C.) Chronic lumbar back pain D.) 5 days s/p total knee arththroscopy B.) Rheumatoid arthritis of the hand and digits When utilizing intermittent mechanical compression over the full lower extremity, which portion of the sleeve has the greatest pressure? A.) In the distal compartments B.) In the proximal compartments C.) It alternates between distal and proximal compartments D.) There is no pressure gradient A.) In the distal compartments Which mechanical agent is most often indicated in the acute stage after a total knee replacement in order to accelerate joint ROM gain and tendon and ligament healing, minimizing contracture risk? A.) Intermittent mechanical compression B.) Continuous passive motion C.) Mechanical spinal traction D.) Tilt table B.) Continuous passive motion The PTA is teacher her patient with COPD strategies and positions to help catch his breath. Which position is most effective for a patient with COPD to improve breathing? A.) Supine B.) Seated leaning forward on the forearms C.) Seated leaning backward into extension D.) Prone B.) Seated leaning forward on the forearms Which of the following is NOT a function of the lower gastrointestinal system? A.) Ingestion and initial breakdown of food B.) Absorption of water and electrolytes C.) Elimination of waste products D.) Storage of waste products A.) Ingestion and initial breakdown of food Which of the following describes the condition in which the stomach protrude upward through the diaphragm? A.) Hiatal hernia B.) Inflammatory bowel disease C.) Gastritis D.) Peptic ulcer disease A.) Hiatal hernia Which metabolic hormone is secreted by the delta cells of the pancreatic islets? A.) Glucagon B.) Insulin C.) Amylin D.) Somatostatin D.) Somatostatin The PTA is challenging a patient's balance by having her seated over an exercise ball with her arms elevated, while the PTA provides perturbations at the patient's trunk. The patient is having difficulty maintaining her balance and frequently requires assistant from the PTA through guarding. The PTA decides to regress the exercise by: A.) Having the patient close her eyes B.) Throwing and catching a ball while continuing perturbations C.) Having the patient place her hands on the side of the exercise ball, instead of elevated D.) Having the patient elevate one lower extremity from the floor C.) Having the patient place her hands on the side of the exercise ball, instead of elevated An 85 year-old patient is being seen in a sub-acute rehab setting after an open reduction internal fixation of the hip, which was necessary due to a fall that resulted in a femoral neck fracture. What complication would be LEAST likely for this patient? A.) Pulmonary embolism B.) Deep vein thrombosis C.) Hip dislocation D.) Fear of falling C.) Hip dislocation The PTA is working with a 20 year-old male with spastic cerebral palsy who is ambulatory. What is a common gait deviation that can be expected? A.) Limited trunk rotation, limited arm swing, and shuffling gait B.) Internal rotation of the hips and flexed knees C.) Weakness on one side of the body with instability D.) Decreased stance time unilaterally and slow cadence B.) Internal rotation of the hips and flexed knees Which federal law assures privacy and security of all personal health care information? A.) Health Information Protection and Accountability Act B.) Health Information Protection Act C.) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D.) Health Insurance Privacy Protection Act C.) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act A PTA has just completed instruction a caregiver on how to transfer a patient from a bend to wheelchair and back using a slide board. The PTA should document the caregiver's performance and ability to complete the tack safely in which section of the SOAP note? A.) Plan B.) Assessment C.) Subjective D.) Objective B.) Assessment A patient is experiencing referred visceral pain to the shoulder. What is the likely organ involved? A.) Esophagus B.) Colon C.) Appendix D.) Liver D.) Liver The PTA is performing gait training with a 75 year-old male who was just discharged home after undergoing a total knee replacement. The patient is complaining of new discomfort in the groin, anterior hip, and low back regions. The PTA should recognize that this tenderness could be related to: A.) Appendicitis B.) Diarrhea C.) Irritable bowel syndrome D.) Constipation D.) Constipation Which type of urinary incontinence is described when the bladder continuously leaks secondary to urinary retention and an over-distended bladder? A.) Overflow incontinence B.) Urge incontinence C.) Functional incontience D.) Stress incontinence A.) Overflow incontinence The initial evaluation notes that patient has a weak gluteus medius. Which gait deviation can the PTA expect to see with this patient during gait? A.) Lateral trunk bending to the opposite side B.) Lateral bending of the trunk to the same side C.) Forward trunk lean D.) Backward trunk lean B.) Lateral bending of the trunk to the same side A geriatric patient suffered a Colle's fracture from a fall. Upon further examination, she was diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which exercise would be best indicated for this patient once the fracture is well healed? A.) Passive stretching to the upper extremities and lower extremities B.) Open chain upper extremity AROM in all shoulder planes C.) Treadmill walking and lower extremity resistive band exercises D.) Wall push-ups and upper extremity resistive band exercises D.) Wall push-ups and upper extremity resistive band exercises A patient presents with pain and tightness over the piriformis. The plan of care includes manual passive stretching. Which patient position is the best to stretch the piriformis? A.) Supine with the hip flexed to 70 degrees and knee extended B.) Supine with hip abducted C.) Supine with hip flexed to 70 degrees and adducted D.) Prone with hip extended C.) Supine with hip flexed to 70 degrees and adducted Which is the most common form of TMJ dysfunction? A.) Rheumatois arthritis B.) Internal derangement of the joint C.) Osteoarthritis D.) Myofascial pain D.) Myofascial pain Which term describes a peripheral nervous system disorder that includes involvement of nerve roots due to skeletal changes and soft tissue injuries? A.) Entrapment syndrome B.) Radiculopathy C.) Peripheral neuropathy D.) Neurotmesis B.) Radiculopathy Which federal act mandates the eligible students received free related services (such as physical, occupational, and speech therapy services) to meet their educational needs? A.) American Disabilities Act (ADA) B.) Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) C.) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D.) Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) D.) Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA) Regarding environmental considerations for wheelchair accessibility, what is the minimum recommended clear width for doorways and halls? A.) 24 inches minimum and ideally 26 inches B.) 28 inches minimum and ideally 32 inches C.) 32 inches minimum and ideally 36 inches D.) 42 inches minimum and ideally 46 inches C.) 32 inches minimum and ideally 36 inches A pulmonary patient has developed respiratory acidosis. What should the therapist monitor for? A.) Disorientation B.) Dizziness C.) Numbness and tingling D.) Convulsions A.) Disorientation Which of the following is a sign of left-sided heart failure? A.) Anorexia B.) Cough C.) Weight gain D.) Nausea B.) Cough The PTA is performing passive range of motion for shoulder mobility in a patient who has impingement. This patient has known gastroesophageal reflux disease and is being seen after lunch. What is the most appropriate positioning for shoulder passive range of motion for this patient? A.) Seated in chair B.) Prone C.) Supine D.) Side-lying A.) Seated in chair Which component of the endocrine system controls the release of insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin? A.) Pancreatic islet cells B.) Parathryoid glands C.) Kidney D.) Thryoid A.) Pancreatic islet cells Which classic sign or symptom of diabetes describes excessive thirst? A.) Glycosuria B.) Polyuria C.) Polyphagia D.) Polydipsia D.) Polydipsia Which condition is an inflammatory response within a bone caused by an infection? A.) Osteomalacia B.) Osteoporosis C.) Osteomyelitis D.) Osteogenesis imperfecta C.) Osteomyelitis A patient sustained an unhappy triad knee injury playing football. What anatomical structures are involved in an injury affecting the unhappy triad? A.) LCL, PCL, and the medial meniscus B.) MCL, ACL, and the medial meniscus C.) MCL, PCL, and the lateral meniscus D.) MCL, PCL, and the medial meniscus B.) MCL, ACL, and the medial meniscus The physical therapy evaluation indicates a positive Lachman's test of the right knee of a soccer player. The patient has opted to avoid surgery at this time. What is the best initial treatment intervention to build strength? A.) Closed chain terminal knee extension exercises B.) Plyometrics C.) Open chain terminal knee extension exercises D.) Lateral cutting coordination activities A.) Closed chain terminal knee extension exercises Which of the following is NOT a fine motor task typically present in a 12 month old infant? A.) Displays emerging pincer grasp B.) Puts objects into containers C.) Stacks six blocks D.) Takes objects out of containers C.) Stacks six blocks A patient is walking in a PT Clinic. The PTA wants to challenge the patient's balance by making a change to the vestibular system. Which modification would achieve this? A.) Have the patient walk with his eyes closed B.) Have the patient walk over uneven terrain, outdoor C.) Have the patient turn his head side to side and up and down when walking D.) Turn the lights off in the clinic and have the patient walk C.) Have the patient turn his head side to side and up and down when walking Pelvis floor weakness due to pregnancy and childbirth can lead to organ prolapse. Which is a herniation of the bladder into the vagina? A.) Kegel B.) Cystocele C.) Uterine prolapse D.) Rectocele B.) Cystocele Which PT intervention for urinary incontinence aims to re-educate pelvic floor muscles if a patient cannot initiate active contractions? A.) Progressive strengthening B.) Behavioral training C.) Biofeedback D.) Functional electrical stimulation D.) Functional electrical stimulation When examining the integumentary system of a patient, it is important to understand risk factors for cancerous cell activity. Clinical examination of malignant melanoma can use the acronym ABCDE. What does this stand for? A.) Active, bleeding, color, diameter, elevation B.) Asymmetry, bleeding, cool, dark, elevation C.) Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, elevation D.) Asymmetry, Brown, cool, diameter, elevation C.) Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, elevation Which is NOT a typical characteristic of an arterial ulcer? A.) Pale base without granulation B.) No pain C.) Well demarcated lesion D.) Located over toes, dorsum of foot, lateral malleolus B.) No pain Scar mobilization is safe to perform in which stage or stages of healing? A.) Granulation, fibroblastic, and maturation phases B.) Inflammatory and fibroblastic phases C.) Fibroblastic and maturation phases D.) Maturation phase only C.) Fibroblastic and maturation phases When performing lymphatic drainage exercises for an upper extremity affected with lymphedema, which is NOT appropriate? A.) Begin with AROM of the shoulder and then isometric exercises of shoulder B.) Include resistance strengthening with 5 to 10 lb weights to build strength C.) Progress to distal musculature (elbow, forearm, wrist, hand) after shoulder exercises D.) Perform with affected extremity elevated, supine position B.) Include resistance strengthening with 5 to 10 lb weights to build strength A PTA provides repeated sit-to-stand transfer training in a patient with Parkinson's disease with impaired balance, providing decreasing verbal cues with Progressive trials. Which training strategy is being used? A.) Motor learning strategy B.) Patient strategy C.) Compensatory strategy D.) Remedial strategy A.) Motor learning strategy The physics related to heat transmission for utilization of the superficial thermotherapy modalities include conduction, convection, and radiation. Which of the following is an example of heat transmission through convection? A.) Infrared lamp B.) Paraffin C.) Whirlpool D.) Hot pack C.) Whirlpool A PTA is teaching a patient how to navigate stairs after a total knee replacement. The patient has identified himself as a kinesthetic learner. Which intervention is most appropriate to maximize carryover of the task? A.) Provide consistent verbal cues for sequencing B.) Provide a written hand out to review prior to practicing C.) First review of video of another patient navigating stairs D.) After teaching, allow the patient to practice on a two-step staircase with therapist guarding D.) After teaching, allow the patient to practice on a two-step staircase with therapist guarding Which component of the gastrointestinal system is responsible for the ingestion and initial digestion of food? A.) Lower gastrointestinal system B.) Middle gastrointestinal system C.) Upper gastrointestinal system D.) Small intestine C. Upper gastrointestinal system Which gastrointestinal condition is one of intractable constipation resulting in fecal impaction? A.) Achalasia B.) Obstipation C.) Anorexia D.) Gastroesophageal reflux disease B.) Obstipation Which of the following medications is associated with gastrointestinal bleeding? A.) Ibuprofen ( Motrin, Advil) B.) Dicyclomine (Bentyl) C.) Omeprazole (Prilosec) D.) Loperamide (Imodium) A.) Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) The medical history revealed that a patient has sustained a second-degree, deep partial thickness burn. What anatomical layers are affected in this type of injury? A.) Epidermis and upper layers of the dermis B.) Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue C.) Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and bone D.) Epidermis, dermis, nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat glands D. Epidermis, dermis, nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat glands An individual has a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL and is considered: A.) Normal B.) Pre-diabetic C.) Diabetic D.) To have metabolic syndrome B.) Pre-diabetic An individual receives his results from an oral glucose tolerance test, and it is determined that his reading is 220 mg/dL. this result indicates: A.) Pre-diabetes B.) Normal reading C.) Diabetes D.) Metabolic syndrome C.) Diabetes When analyzing the gait of a patient with a below knee amputation, the PTA notices excessive knee flexion and initial contact of early stance. What is a likely contributing factor for this deviation? A.) Stiff heel cushion or high shoe heel B.) Excessive foot inset C.) Soft heel cushion or low shoe heel D.) Excessive foot outset A.) Stiff heel cushion or high shoe heel What special shoulder test evaluates the integrity of the glenoid labrum? A.) Drop arm test B.) Speed's test C.) Clunk test D.) Neer's impingement test C.) Clunk test Which term describes the joint position in which the capsule and other soft tissues are maximally tensed? A.) Loose-packed position B.) Close-packed position C.) Hard end feel D.) Closed chain B.) Close-packed position A patient presents with impaired plantar flexion ROM and weakness in the plantar flexor muscle group. Which task will be most difficult? A.) Ascending stairs B.) Walking down a ramp C.) Descending stairs D.) Walking over even surface B.) Walking down a ramp Which upper extremity special test would likely be positive for a patient who complains of shoulder pain, with a current history as a college-level baseball pitcher? A.) Clunk test B.) Adson's test C.) Drop arm test D.) Yergason's test A. Clunk test The PTA assesses the pulse of a 50 year old male patient and finds it to be 70 bpm, which is within a normal range. What is the normal range for heart rate for an adult? A.) 40-60 bpm B.) 60-100 bpm C.) 70-140 bpm D.) 70-170 bpm B.) 60-100 bpm Which special test of the shoulder identifies bicipital tendonitis? A.) Clunk test B.) Speed's test C.) Drop arm test D. Neer's impingement test B.) Speeds test In regards to arthrokinematics, what is the movement between the femoral and tibial articular surfaces of the knee? A.) Flexion B.) Spin C.) Glide D.) Roll D.) Roll Which special test of the upper extremity evaluates for pathology of structures that pass through the thoracic inlet? A.) Yergason's test B.) Adson's test C.) Drop arm test D.) Clunk test B.) Adson's test Which special test of the wrist and hand would be performed to identify a patient with de Quervain's tenosynovitis? A.) Finkelstein's test B.) Phalen's test C.) Tinel's sign D.) Froment's sign A.) Finkelstein's test What is the term to describe a patellar malalignment in which the patella tracks too far superiorly? A.) Osgood-Schlatter B.) Patella Baja C.) Patella Alta D.) Pes anserine bursitis C.) Patella Alta A PTA is working with an individual with Parkinson's disease. He displays difficulty with ambulation and freezing episodes and difficulty transitioning over threshold. Which intervention would best address this limitation? A.) Passive stretching for trunk rotation B.) Seated long arc quads and repeated sit to stand C.) Standing marches and cone tapping with the lower extremity D.) Seated balance activity over the exercise ball C.) Standing marches and cone tapping with the lower extremity Which is a false statement in regards to the role of the PT / PTA team? A.) The PTA must follow the plan of care established by the PT B.) The PTA may adjust the plan of care if the patient displays a change in status in order to reach established goals C.) The PTA must practice under the direction of a PT D.) The PT is the only individual who can clinically direct and supervise a PTA B.) The PTA may adjust the plan of care if the patient displays a change in status in order to reach established goals In regards to the FITT acronym for exercise training, which is NOT a correct term? A.) Type B.) Time C.) Fitness D.) Intensity C.) Fitness Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis affecting the hands? A.) Ulnar drift of metacarpal phalangeal joints B.) Boutonniere deformity C.) Osteophyte formation D.) Swan neck deformity C.) Osteophyte formation Which types of wound dressings are characterized as adhesive Wafers containing absorptive particles that interact with wound fluid to form a gelatinous mass over the wound bed and are indicated for protection of partial thickness wounds? A.) Alginates B.) Hydrogels C.) Foams D.) Hydrocolloids D.) Hydrocolloids Which of the following is NOT an area of high concentration of lymph nodes? A.) Cervical region B.) Inguinal region C.) Axilla D.) Hands D.) Hands A patient with spinal cord injury presents with bilateral loss of motor function, spastic paralysis below the lesion level, and bilateral loss of pain and temperature. She has preservation of proprioception, kinesthesia, and vibratory sense. Which clinical syndrome is likely? A.) Brown-sequard syndrome B.) Posterior cord syndrome C.) Central cord syndrome D.) Anterior cord syndrome D.) Anterior cord syndrome Which form of resistance exercises uses dynamic muscle lengthening and is used to prepare muscles for functional activities such as descending stairs? A.) Isotonic B.) Isokinetic C.) Isometric D.) Eccentric D.) Eccentric A PTA is working with a patient with a history of several shoulder dislocations and is referred to for therapy for joint hypermobility. What is the best treatment intervention? A.) PROM for the shoulder complex B.) Manual joint mobilization, grade 2 C.) End range shoulder strengthening exercises D.) Stabilization exercises and corrective taping D. Stabilization exercises and corrective taping Full extension at the joint is the close-packed position for all of the following joints except: A.) Proximal and distal interphalangeal joints B.) Metatarsophalangeal joint C.) Patellofemoral joint D.) 1st metacarpophalangeal joint C.) Patellofemoral joint The best initial intervention to promote functional mobility after a 4-week shoulder immobilization is: A.) Pendulum exercises B.) Resistance strengthening with a resistive band C.) TENS for pain reduction D.) Isometric shoulder strengthening in all planes A.) Pendulum exercises Patients with multiple sclerosis may experience Lhermitte's sign. What does this entail? A.) A rapidly increased respiratory rate with minimal physical exertion B.) A drop in blood pressure when moving from sitting to standing C.) An electric, shock-like sensation throughout the body produced upon flexing the neck D.) Rapid weight gain unrelated to caloric intake C.) An electric, shock-like sensation throughout the body produced upon flexing the neck A patient has nerve entrapment resulting an aching pain with weakness in the forearm muscles and paresthesia in digits 1-4. What nerve is entrapped? A.) Ulnar nerve B.) Radial nerve C.) Median nerve D.) Tibial nerve C.) Median nerve A PTA is treating a patient for left knee osteoarthritis. The patient recently received a cortisone injection into the knee. What is an adverse side effect of injection of corticosteroids into a joint space? A.) Gastrointestinal bleeding B.) Lethargy C.) Weakening of the tendon, muscle, and bone D.) Prolonged bleeding C.) Weakening of the tendon, muscle, and bone A PTA is working with a patient who has a recent diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and has begun chemotherapy treatments, resulting and weakness and low activity tolerance. The assistant checks the vital signs of this patient to find heart rate is 60 bpm, respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute, blood pressure is 116/72, and abdominal pain is rated as 2/10. Which vital sign is of greatest concern? A.) Heart rate B.) Pain rating C.) Respiratory rate D.) Blood pressure C.) Respiratory rate The PTA is working with a patient who has peripheral vascular disease. Which is NOT a sign or symptom of chronic arterial insufficiency? A.) Loss of hair B.) Pale, shiny, dry skin C.) Severe muscle pain overcast and lower leg D.) Minimal aching pain in the lower leg D.) Minimal aching pain in the lower leg Which arterial disease is marked by chronic, inflammatory vascular occlusive disease of small arteries and also veins, primarily affecting young adult males who smoke? A.) Thromboangiitis obliterans B.) Raynaud's disease C.) Diabetic angiopathy D.) Arteriosclerosis obliterans A.) Thromboangiitis obliterans A urinary tract infection is an infection of the urinary tract with microorganisms. Which of the following describes an infection of the kidney? A.) Urethritis B.) Cystitis C.) Pyelonephritis D.) Lower UTI C.) Pyelonephritis The PT is working with a patient who has HIV. Through which of the following body fluids is HIV transmissible? A.) Sweat B.) Urine C.) Vomit D.) Blood D.) Blood Surgery, such as liposuction, hernia repair, total hip replacement, or lumpectomy of the breast can result in which type of lymphedema? A.) Primary lymphedema B.) Secondary lymphedema C.) Idiopathic lymphedema D.) Filariasis B.) Secondary lymphedema What special test of the shoulder identifies a full rupture of the rotator cuff? A.) Speed's test B.) Neer's impingement test C.) Drop arm test D.) Clunk test C.) Drop arm test What is the highest level of spinal cord injury in which it may be possible for an individual to be able to live independently? A.) C2 B.) T1 C.) C4 D.) C7 D.) C7 What type of muscle response is noted in a denervated muscle when utilizing electric stimulation modality? A.) Brief muscle twitch B.) Asynchronous or vermicular C.) There is no contraction D.) Tetonic or sustained B.) Asynchronous or vermicular In regards to physics related to Aquatic exercise, what is the upward force of water on an immersed or partially immersed body or body part? A.) Hydrostatic pressure B.) Cohesion C.) Buoyancy D.) Density C.) Buoyancy The patient is sitting and leaning back on a pillow at a 45 degree angle against the therapist in order to accomplish postural drainage. What is being drained? A.) Posterior segments of the upper lobes B.) Apical segments of the upper lobes C.) Anterior segments of the upper lobes D.) Superior segments of the lower lobes B.) Apical segments of the upper lobes Which type of urinary incontinence is described when the patient has an inability to delay voiding due to detrusor muscle instability? A.) Functional incontinence B.) Urge incontinence C.) Stress incontinence D.) Overflow incontinence B.) Urge incontinence The PT is working with a patient who has dementia. His genitourinary anatomy is intact, yet he has urinary incontinence. Which type of urinary incontinence is described? A.) Functional incontinence B.) Stress incontinence C.) Overflow incontinence D.) Urge incontinence A.) Functional incontinence A PTA is treating a patient for carpal tunnel pain. The patient has a history of mastectomy two years ago and states that she has noticed not only pain in her wrist, but also that her wrist watch no longer fits and she has a sense of heaviness in her hand. What would be the most appropriate step for the PTA? A.) Utilize ice modality to attempt to reduce inflammation B.) Fit this patient for a compression garment C.) Discuss this with the overseeing PT as this patient should be referred back to her position to evaluate these complaints D.) Utilize retrograde massage to reduce the edema into the upper extremity C.) Discuss this with the overseeing PT as this patient should be referred back to her position to evaluate these complaints Which of the following is NOT a sign of metabolic acidosis? A.) Weakness B.) Muscular twitch C.) Depressed respirations D.) Nausea and vomiting C.) Depressed respirations Which condition is characterized by decalcification of bones as a result of vitamin D deficiency? A.) Osteoporosis B.) Osteomyelitis C.) Osteomalacia D.) Osteogenesis imperfecta C,) Osteomalacia Which upper extremity condition may lead to pain in the anterior aspect of the shoulder and difficulty with resisted lifting motions below shoulder level? A.) Adhesive capsulitis B.) Impingement syndrome C.) Bicipital tendonitis D.) Thoracic outlet syndrome C.) Bicipital tendonitis Which hand deformity is the result of median nerve dysfunction? A.) Ape hand deformity B.) Boutonniere deformity C.) Swan neck deformity D.) Mallet finger A.) Ape hand deformity The PTA is working with a patient who is participating in 2 weeks of lower extremity strengthening prior to undergoing a total knee replacement surgery. The patient asks the PTA to describe the surgery and expected rehabilitation after the surgery, as she is feeling anxious. What is the best course of explanation by the PTA? A.) Explain that this is outside your scope of practice, as you are not the surgeon and refer the patient to discuss this with the orthopedic physician B.) Explain the surgical and anesthesia in full detail for the patient C.) Explain how patients typically respond to a total knee replacement and describe the typical rehabilitation protocol with exercise progression D.) Refer the patient to the overseeing PT who is an orthopedic clinical specialist C.) Explain how patients typically respond to a total knee replacement and describe the typical rehabilitation protocol with exercise progression A PTA is teaching a patient to descend a curb using a small base quad cane. The best sequencing for teaching this is: A.) Hold cane on strong side, descend with weaker extremity first B.) Hold cane on strong side, descend with stronger extremity first C.) Hold cane on weaker side, descend with weaker extremity first D.) Hold cane on weaker side, descend with stronger extremity first A.) Hold cane on strong side, descend with weaker extremity first The PTA assesses her patients blood pressure and finds it to the 145/92 mmHg. This is considered: A.) Normal B.) Pre-hypertension C.) Hypertension stage 2 D.) Hypertension stage 1 D.) Hypertension stage 1 Which gastrointestinal viscera can refer pain to the mid back and scapular regions? A.) Colon, appendix B.) Liver, diaphragm C.) Pelvic viscera D.) Gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, small intestine D. Gallbladder, stomach, pancreas, small intestine For patients with burns, it is important that the therapy teamwork to prevent or reduce complications of a mobilization through positioning and splinting to prevent contractures. Which is the correct position to place a patient with an anterior neck burn? A.) Emphasize flexion and position with chin to chest B.) Emphasize neutral spine with plastic cervical orthosis C.) Positioning does not matter in this burn injury D.) Emphasize hyperextension and position with plastic cervical orthosis D.) Emphasize hyperextension and position with plastic cervical orthosis Electrical potential is generated across the cell membrane due to a higher concentration of ________ and anions on the inside of the cell relative to the concentration of sodium on the outside. A.) Zinc B.) Oxygen C.) Potassium D.) Magnesium C.) Potassium Which of the following is not considered a facilitation technique when providing proprioceptive sensory intervention techniques? A.) Resistance B.) Quick stretch, tapping of muscle belly C.) Joint traction D.) Maintained touch/pressure D.) Maintain touch/pressure A patient presents with a lower motor neuron lesion. Which is NOT a structure that would be involved in a condition of a lower motor neuron lesion? A.) Peripheral nerve B.) Corticospinal tract C.) Spinal root D.) Cranial nerve B.) Corticospinal tract Which is NOT a physiological effect of general (large surface area) cold application? A.) Increased stroke volume B.) Increased cardiac output C.) Increased arterial blood pressure D.) Decreased blood flow to internal organs D.) Decreased blood flow to internal organs Which is NOT a physiological effect of massage? A.) Pain modulation B.) Reduction of edema C.) Decreased venous and lymphatic flow D.) Muscle relaxation C.) Decreased venous and lymphatic flow A researcher states that she expects there to be a statistically significant difference between the hamstring length of individuals who participated in a 12-week hamstring stretching program using static stretching technique versus those who participated in a yoga program. What kind of hypothesis is used here? A.) Non-directional hypothesis B.) Null hypothesis C.) Research hypothesis D.) There is no hypothesis C.) Research hypothesis As a result of multiple sclerosis, a patient is displaying impaired dynamic standing balance deficiencies. Which intervention is best indicated for this patient? A.) Standing with eyes closed on even surface B.) Standing with narrow base of support in tandem stance C.) Alternating isometrics in standing D.) Reaching for cones outside base of support in standing D.) Reaching for cones outside base of support in standing A therapist monitors his patient's respiratory rate as 22 breaths per minute. This respiratory rate is considered: A.) Bradypnea B.) Dyspnea C.) Tachypnea D.) Normal C.) Tachypnea Which component of the endocrine system controls the release of growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin? A.) Anterior pituitary gland B.) Adrenal medulla C.) Adrenal cortex D.) Posterior pituitary gland A.) Anterior pituitary gland Which component of the endocrine system controls the release of 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D? A.) Parathyroid glands B.) Kidney C.) Pancreatic islet cells D.) Thyroid B.) Kidney How long must an athlete participate in strength training before he sees hypertrophy of muscle? A.) 1-2 weeks of resistance training B.) 4-6 weeks of resistance training C.) 6-8 weeks of resistance training D.) 2-4 weeks of resistance training C.) 6-8 weeks of resistance training Which condition of the knee is commonly referred to as "Jumper's knee" and is a mechanical dysfunction resulting in traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle at the patellar tendon insertion? A.) Patella Baja B.) Patella Alta C.) Osgood-Schlatter D.) Pes anserine bursitis C.) Osgood-Schlatter Which surgical repair requires the patient to utilize a wedge to prevent hip adduction when in bed? A.) Total hip arthroplasty B.) ACL reconstruction C.) Open reduction internal fixation D.) Total knee arthroplasty A.) Total hip arthroplasty A patient is 1-day post-op right total knee arthroplasty in a hospital setting. Which is an appropriate intervention to assign the patient to begin improving knee range of motion? A.) Wall squats B.) Forward lunges C.) Supine heel slides D.) Gluteus set C.) Supine heel slides Which of the following is NOT a peripheral cause of vertigo? A.) Otosclerosis B.) Neuroma C.) Meniere's disease D.) Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo B.) Neuroma In regards to iontophoresis, which medium is indicated for musculoskeletal inflammatory conditions? A.) Dexamathasone phosphate B.) Copper sulfate C.) Calcium chloride D.) Lidocaine A.) Dexamethasone phosphate Which positioning or mobility device provides a child free floor mobility in a safe environment? A.) Scooter board B.) Ball C.) Mat D.) Sidelyer C.) Mat A patient s/p CVA Presents with symptoms on both the right and left sides of the body. She has diplopia, dysphagia, and vertigo. She has ataxia, balance impairment, and nystagmus. Which CVA syndrome is likely? A.) Vertebral basilar artery syndrome B.) Middle cerebral artery syndrome C.) Anterior cerebral artery syndrome D.) Posterior cerebral artery syndrome A.) Vertebrobasilar artery syndrome To accomplish postural drainage, the patient is positioned flat on her back with her legs together and a pillow is placed under her knees. The therapist raises the foot of the bed 18in. What is being drained? A.) Anterior basal segments of the right lower lobe B.) Lingular segments of the left upper lobe C.) Anterior basal segments of the left lower lobe D.) Right middle lobe A.) Anterior basal segments of the right lower lobe Which component of the gastrointestinal tract is responsible for the major digestive and absorption processes? A.) Upper gastrointestinal tract B.) Middle gastrointestinal tract C.) The colon D.) Lower gastrointestinal tract B.) Middle gastrointestinal tract Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding medical management of lymphedema? A.) Diuretics work to reduce edema in lymphedema B.) Diuretics can decrease fibrosis and reduced extracellular protein C.) No clear pharmaceutical management is available D.) Surgical procedures can be largely effective in reducing lymphedema C.) No clear pharmaceutical management is available A patient presents with very tough skin with papillomas present. The edema in the limb is not reversible with elevation, and the patient is prone to infections. What stage of Lymphedema is described? A.) Stage 4 B.) Stage 3 C.) Stage 1 D.) Stage 2 B.) Stage 3 The plan of care includes soft tissue management for the treatment of a patient with de Quervain's tenosynovitis. Which structure should NOT be included? A.) Extensor pollicis brevis tendon B.) Abductor pollicis longus muscle C.) Adductor pollicis muscle D.) Extensor pollicis brevis muscle C.) Adductor pollicis brevis muscle A PTA is providing strengthening intervention for a patient with a painful Arc of motion from chronically inflamed shoulder abductors. Which is the most efficient and appropriate exercise type? A.) Isometric contraction at the end range B.) Active concentric contraction in the pain-free range C.) Active eccentric contraction in the pain-free range D.) Active concentric contraction in the full range C.) Active eccentric contraction in the pain-free range Regarding electrical stimulation, which term describes the area of greatest excitability on the skin surface, and which is small amount of current generates a muscle response? A.) Sensory point B.) Motor point C.) Muscle origin D.) Muscle pump B.) Motor point The PT is assisting in selecting wheelchair positioning components for a child with spastic cerebral palsy. Which component functions to provide upper extremity positioning and support to assist with trunk extension? A.) Butterfly strap B.) Pelvic belt C.) Lap tray D.) Chest strap C.) Lap tray Which pediatric disorder is the result of an abnormality in the college in gene causing problems with the amount and quality of collagen in the body, resulting in fragile bones that break easily? A.) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis B.) Osteogenesis imperfecta C.) Arthrogryposis Multiplex congenita D.) Legg calve Perthes disease B.) Osteogenesis imperfecta Regarding cardiovascular hemodynamics, which is the term that describes the percentage of blood emptied from the ventricle during systole? A.) Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure B.) Ejection fraction C.) Stroke volume D.) Cardiac output B.) Ejection fraction What would be the most appropriate strategy to manage functional urinary incontinence in a patient who has dementia? A.) Bladder training with a toileting schedule B.) Biofeedback C.) Functional electrical stimulation D.) Kegel's exercises A.) Bladder training with a toileting schedule Which healthcare-associated infection is NOT characterized by diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pains? A.) Clostridium difficile B.) Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) C.) Rotavirus D.) Norovirus B.) Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Which type of lymphatic disease occurs in some patients after radiation or malignancy? A.) Primary lymphatic disease B.) Secondary lymphatic disease C.) Acute lymphangitis D.) Lymphadenopathy B.) Secondary lymphatic disease Which component of the endocrine system controls the release of antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin? A.) Posterior pituitary gland B.) Anterior pituitary gland C.) Adrenal cortex D.) Adrenal medulla A.) Posterior pituitary gland Which component of the endocrine system controls the release of triiodothyronine and thyroxine? A.) Pancreatic islets cells B.) Parathyroid C.)Thyroid D.) Kidney C.) Thyroid The initial evaluation indicates the patient has impaired sensation over the second and third digits. Which dermatome is this distribution? A.) C6 B.) C8 C.) C7 D.) T1 C.) C7 Regarding proprioceptive techniques, which technique is considered inhibitory? A.) Resistance B.) Prolonged, slowly applied stretch C.) Quick stretch and tapping of muscle belly D.) Joint traction B.) Prolonged, slow applied stretch Which hand deformity is caused from rupture or avulsion of the extensor tendon at is insertion into the distal phalanx of a digit? A.) Swan neck deformity B.) Mallet finger C.) Boutonniere deformity D.) Ape hand deformity B.) Mallet finger The PTA is working with a patient with rheumatoid arthritis of the hands. Which is likely? A.) Bilateral and symmetrical hand deformities B.) Bone spurs C.) Radial drift D.) Short-lasting stiffness in fingers A._ Bilateral and symmetrical hand deformities Which pulmonary condition is characterized by excessive seepage of fluid from the pulmonary vascular system into the interstitial space? A.) Pulmonary emboli B.) Pulmonary edema C.) Atelectasis D.) Pleural effusion B.) Pulmonary edema The therapist is treating a pregnant woman who is 30 weeks in gestation. The patient complains of a headache and lower energy. The therapist assesses her blood pressure as 145/90 and notes edema in the lower legs. What is the best treatment intervention? A.) Give the patient water and a seated rest B.) Discontinue the session and initiate an immediate referral to see her physician C.) Provide the patient elastic support hose to reduce edema D.) Educate the patient in the role of lower extremity elevation to reduce edema and review her medication list B.) Discontinue the session and initiate an immediate referral to see her physician Which metabolic hormone modulates gastric emptying and suppresses the release of glucagon? A.) Insulin B.) Amylin C.) Estrogen D.) Somatostatin B.) Amylin What term describes the intensity of the current, with a long duration stimulus, required to produce a minimum muscle contraction? A.) Amperage B.) Chronaxie C.) Rheobase D.) Motor point C.) Rheobase The PTA is working to improve dynamic standing balance reactions in a patient who has multiple sclerosis. The patient is standing on a tile floor and stepping over 4 inch cones without difficulty. What is an appropriate progression to this activity? A.) Decrease the height of the cones to 2 in B.) Place patient in sitting and perform cone taps C.) Ambulate over foam mats instead of tile floor D.) Provide the patient with a balance bar for upper extremity support C.) Ambulate over foam mats instead of tile floor The PT is delivering joint mobilization intervention at the patient's shoulder. The therapist delivers three sets of 30 seconds of small amplitude of oscillation near the end of the passive range, intended to increase capsular mobility. Which grade of joint mobilization is being performed? A.) Grade 1 B.) Grade 3 C.) Grade 4 D.) Grade 5 C.) Grade 4 Which traumatic nerve injury is characterized by cutting of the nerve with Severance of all structures and complete loss of function? A.) Axonotmesis B.) Neurotmesis C.) Entrapment D.) Neurapraxia B.) Neurotmesis For which patient is the use of sliding board best indicated to perform a transfer from a wheelchair to bed? A.) A patient with Stage 2 Parkinson's disease B.) A patient with a grade 3 ulcer over left side buttocks C.) A patient with a level C6 complete SCI D.) A patient with a level C2 complete SCI C.) A patient with a level C6 complete SCI A researcher expects to find no statistically significant difference between a geriatric population and an adolescent population in the outcomes of a new functional outcome tool. This is an example of what kind of hypothesis? A.) Null hypothesis B.) Directional hypothesis C.) Experimental hypothesis D.) This is not an appropriate hypothesis for a research design A.) Null hypothesis A therapist is performing sit-to-stand training for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia who requires maximum assist to stand. Where should the therapist be positioned for safe guarding? A.) To the left side and slightly behind the patient B.) In front of the patient and slightly to the right side C.) In front of the patient and slightly to the left side D.) To the right side and slightly behind the patient B.) In front of the patient and slightly to the right side Which metabolic hormone is released by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets? A.) Somatostatin B.) Insulin C.) Glucagon D.) Amylin C.) Glucagon Due to the complication of diabetic polyneuropathy, which PT intervention should be included to reduce patient fall risk? A.) Balance training B.) Education regarding foot care C.) Cardiovascular endurance training D.) Pain management A.) Balance training When instructing a patient to ascend stairs with a step-to pattern after a right total knee replacement, which is the correct sequencing? A.) Step up with the left leg followed by the cane and then meet the right leg on the same step B.) Step up with the right leg followed by the cane and then step the left leg onto the higher stare C.) Step up with the right leg followed by the cane and then meet the left leg on the same step D.) Step up with the left leg followed by the cane and then step the right leg onto the higher stare A.) Step up with the left leg followed by the cane and then meet the right leg on the same step The PTA is working with a patient dependent for mobility and primarily bed-bound with high muscle tone and areas of muscle spasm around the shoulder complex and hips. Which sensory facilitation technique would be best indicated to improve joint awareness when relieving muscle spasm around a joint? A.) Joint traction B.) Resistance C.) Inhibitory pressure D.) Quick stretch, tapping of muscle belly A.) Joint traction A patient sustained a spinal cord injury and presents with ipsilateral loss of tactile discrimination, pressure and vibration, as well as ipsilateral loss of motor function and spastic paralysis below the legion. She has contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the lesion and at the level of the lesion, she has bilateral loss of pain and temperature. Which clinical syndrome does this patient likely have? A.) Central cord lesion B.) Anterior cord syndrome C.) Brown-sequard syndrome D.) Posterior cord syndrome C.) Brown-Sequard syndrome The PTA is delivering joint mobilization intervention at a patient's shoulder. The therapist delivers 3 sets of 20 seconds of continuous large-amplitude oscillation that pushes into tissue resistance. Which grade of joint mobilization is being performed? A.) Grade 5 B.) Grade 3 C.) Grade 4 D.) Grade 2 B.) Grade 3 A patient has impaired visual acuity. Which cranial nerve may be involved? A.) CN I B.) CN II C.) CN III D.) CN IV B.) CN II A PTA works with another PT to write a study, describing the treatment interventions and outcomes of a patient with a unique condition and unusual outcomes after physical therapy. What type of study is this considered? A.) Case report B.) Systematic review C.) Cohort study D.) Randomized control trial A.) Case report Which document is intended to serve PTAs as a guide for ethical professional behavior and was put together by the APTA? A.) Code of ethics B.) Board of directors guidelines for documentation C.) Standards of ethical conduct for the PTA D.) Health insurance portability and accountability Act C.) Standards of ethical conduct for the PTA The PTA is treating an 11 year old girl who has tan limited knee range of motion following repair of the posterior cruciate ligament. The plan of care includes modalities for pain relief and soft tissue healing. Which modality is NOT indicated? A.) Ice pack B.) TENS C.) Ultrasound D.) Interferential current C.) Ultrasound Which pulmonary condition is characterized by a collapsed or airless alveolar unit? A.) Pulmonary edema B.) Pulmonary emboli C.) Atelectasis D.) Pleural effusion C,) Atelectasis All of the following are components of the middle gastrointestinal tract except: A.) Jejunum B.) Cecum C.) Ileum D.) Duodenum B.) Cecum What skin color change is common with an individual who have liver disease? A.) Blue B.) Brown C.) Yellow D.) Cherry red C.) Yellow What term describes a taut area of muscle that is tender to palpation and can refer pain to other parts of the body? A.) Trigger point B.) Motor point C.) Lymph node D.) Muscle spindle A.) Trigger point A PTA is working to reduce discomfort related to trigger point symptoms in a patient's neck. Where is the trigger point for the sternocleidomastoid most likely palpated? A.) Just inferior to the mastoid process B.) Medial to the inferior angle of the vertebral border of the scapula C.) Medial to the superior portion of the acromion process D.) Just superior to the superior angle of the vertebral border of the scapula A.) Just inferior to the mastoid process At what age can the PTA first expect a pediatric patient to creep on hands and knees? A.) 12-15 months B.) 8-9 months C.) 10-11 months D.) 6-7 months B.) 8-9 months Which nerve root level is tested with the Achilles deep tendon reflex examination? A.) L5-S3 B.) S1-2 C.) C7-8 D.) L2-4 B.) S1-2 A patient is referred to PT for vestibular dysfunction. The patient has episodes of vertigo brought on by stimulation of the vestibular sense organs when rolling over in bed and moving the head in certain positions. The patient has unilateral symptoms and noted nystagmus. What is the likely cause of vertigo? A.) Vestibular neuritis B.) CVA with ischemia to the vertebral basilar system C.) Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo D.) Meniere's disease C.) Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo When performing gait analysis of a patient with an above-knee amputation, the PTA notices the patient displays circumduction during swing phase of gait on the prosthetic limb. Which condition is NOT a cause of this deviation? A.) Short prosthesis B.) Inadequate suspension C.) Abduction contracture D.) Long prosthesis A.) Short prosthesis Which arterial disease is marked by an inappropriate elevation of blood glucose levels and accelerated atherosclerosis? A.) Arteriosclerosis obliterans B.) Raynaud's disease C.) Diabetic angiopathy D.) Thromboangiitis obliterans C.) Diabetic angiopathy In an average adult, what is considered a normal adult blood pressure? A.) <130 mmHg systolic; <90 mmHg diastolic B.) <120 mmHg systolic; <80 mmHg diastolic C.) <140 mmHg systolic; <80 mmHg diastolic D.) <160 mmHg systolic; <100 mmHg diastolic B.) <120 mmHg systolic; <80 mmHg diastolic The PTA is working with a patient that has class II congestive heart failure. What is the maximum maximal METs for physical activity for this patient? A.) Up to 3 METs B.) Up to 6.5 METs C.) Up to 4.5 METs D.) Up to 1.5 METs C.) Up to 4.5 METs Regarding referred gastrointestinal patterns, visceral pain from the esophagus refers to: A.) The mid back B.) The shoulder C.) The pelvis D.) The scapular region A.) The mid back When performing soft tissue mobilization on a patient's neck, the therapists noticed is a flat red area on the patient's skin, which she is concerned may need further evaluation by a dermatologist. What form of malignant tumor is characterized by a flat, red area with poorly defined margins commonly occurring in sun-exposed areas? A.) Kaposi's sarcoma B.) Basal cell carcinoma C.) Squamous cell carcinoma D.) Malignant melanoma C.) Squamous cell carcinoma When performing manual lymphatic drainage for an upper limb lymphedema, which is the correct technique? A.) Clear trunk quadrants first, followed by proximal upper extremities and then distal upper extremity, with the direction of flow toward the trunk B.) Clear trunk quadrants first, followed by proximal upper extremity and then distal upper extremity, with the direction of flow away from the trunk C.) Clear trunk quadrants first, followed by distal upper extremity and then proximal upper extremity, with the direction of flow toward the trunk D.) Clear proximal upper extremity and then distal upper extremity, followed by the trunk, with the direction of flow away from the trunk A.) Clear trunk quadrants first, followed by proximal upper extremities and then distal upper extremity, with the direction of flow toward the trunk A patient presents for PT with a referral for chronic low back pain. After the evaluation, the PT is concerned that the patient may have spondylolisthesis. The patient is to have an Imaging study performed but not for another week. Until this is confirmed or negated, which exercise should be avoided? A.) Transverse abdominis activation B.) Prone back extension C.) Isometric strengthening of multifarious D.) Hamstring stretching B.) Prone back extension The PTA is testing sensation in her patient. She moves the patient Slim in various directions (up/down/right/left) and ask the patient to identify the direction of motion. Which sensory test is being performed? A.) Barognosis B.) Kinesthesia C.) Stereognosis D.) Graphesthesia B.) Kinesthesia A patient presents with nerve entrapment after a fall onto his elbow. He experiences pain at the medial aspect of his elbow and paresthesia into his fifth finger. Which nerve is entrapped? A.) Ulnar nerve B.) Median nerve C.) Tibial nerve D.) Radial nerve A.) Ulnar nerve A patient suffered a peripheral nerve injury that results in foot drop of the left lower extremity during gait. The PT has included functional electrical stimulation for orthotic substitution. Which phase of gait should the PTA set up the electrical stimulation to contract the appropriate muscles? A.) Foot flat B.) Mid swing C.) This is not an appropriate intervention D.) Heel off B.) Mid swing Which pediatric disorder is characterized by multiple joint contractures at birth? A.) Legg calve Perthes disease B.) Osteogenesis imperfecta C.) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis D.) Arthrogryposis Multiplex congenita D.) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita Which phase of burn healing is characterized by scar tissue formation by fibroblasts and wound contraction? A.) Emergency phase B.) Proliferative phase C.) Inflammatory phase D.) Maturation phase B.) Proliferative phase For patients with burns, it is important that the therapy teamwork to prevent or reduce complications of immobilization through positioning and splinting to prevent contractures. Which is the correct position to place a patient with a shoulder burn? A.) Emphasize abduction, flexion, and external rotation B.) Emphasize adduction and internal rotation C.) Emphasize shoulder extension D.) Emphasize anatomical position A.) Emphasize abduction, flexion, and external rotation For patients with burns, it is important that the therapy teamwork to prevent or reduce complications of immobilization through positioning and splinting to prevent contractures. Which is the correct position to place a patient with an ankle burn? A.) Position in ankle inversion B.) Position in plantar flexion C.) Position in neutral alignment D.) Position in ankle eversion C.) Position in neutral alignment The quadrilateral socket is the most commonly prescribed above knee prosthetic socket. Which is NOT true regarding the quadrilateral socket? A.) Contains a broad horizontal posterior shelf for seating of the ischial tuberosity and gluteals B.) Higher medial and posterior walls in comparison to anterior and lateral walls C.) Reliefs provided for the adductor longus tendon, hamstring tendons, sciatic nerve, gluteus maximus, and rectus femoris D.) Posterior directed force provided by anterior and lateral walls to ensure proper seating B.) Higher medial and posterior walls in comparison to anterior and lateral walls The PTA incorporate PNF diagonal patterns into treatment to facilitate improve shoulder mobility in a patient who has complaints of difficulty reaching his car seat belt. The patient sits in the front passenger seat and needs to reach above and behind him to grab the seat belt with his right hand. This seat belt is a sash type that goes over the shoulder and trunk of the occupant. Which PNF pattern is most appropriate? A.) D1 extension B.) D2 extension C.) D1 flexion D.) D2 flexion D.) D2 flexion Full knee extension is the close-packed position for which joint? A.) Tibiofemoral joint B.) Patellofemoral joint C.) Hip joint D.) Talocrural joint B.) Patellofemoral joint Which resistance training intervention would achieve the goal of improving muscular endurance? A.) Using 75% of 1 RM and performing 3 sets of 10 reps B.) Using 40% of 1 RM and performing 3 sets of 20 reps C.) Using 80% 1 RM and performing 2 sets of 12 reps D.) Using 90% of 1 RM and performing 1 set of 8 reps B.) Using 40% of 1 RM and performing 3 sets of 20 reps The PTA is working with a patient who has sustained a traumatic brain injury. The patient complained to the severe headache and is suddenly lethargic. What is the most appropriate action by the PTA? A.) Have the patient take acetaminophen for headache pain B.) Give the patient a seated rest with water C.) Call 911 for emergency services D.) Monitor vitals throughout the remainder of the therapeutic exercises C.) Call 911 for emergency services Which of the following health care workers is a non-licensed provider? A.) Physical therapist assistant B.) Physical therapy aide C.) Occupational therapist assistant D.) Social worker B.) Physical therapy aide Which physical property of water is utilized when a patient incorporates a paddle and increases his speed of movement in the water in order to increase resistance and drag for greater strength and endurance challenge? A.) Hydrostatic pressure B.) Density C.) Turbulence D.) Buoyancy C.) Turbulence Which condition is typically NOT indicated for manually assisted airway clearance techniques? A.) Aspiration B.) Atelectasis C.) Chronic bronchitis D.) Cystic fibrosis C.) Chronic bronchitis A urinary tract infection is an infection of the urinary tract with microorganisms. Which describes an infection of the urethra? A.) Upper UTI B.) Pyelonephritis C.) Cystitis D.) Urethritis D.) Urethritis The PTA is educating family members about pressure ulcer formation and prevention. In which position would a pressure ulcer most likely form over the sacrum? A.) Standing B.) Supine C.) Side lying D.) Seated in wheelchair B.) Supine When performing soft tissue mobilization on a patient's back, the therapist notices a dark, raised area with an irregular border and asymmetrical presentation, which she is concerned may need further evaluation by a dermatologist. Which form of malignant tumor is characterized by a symmetry, a regular borders, variations in color, diameters larger than 6 mm, and elevation? A.) Kaposi's sarcoma B.) Malignant melanoma C.) Squamous cell carcinoma D.) Basal cell carcinoma B.) Malignant melanoma Which gait pattern is best indicated for an individual who is non-weight bearing in his right lower extremity due to an orthopedic injury? A.) Swing through gait B.) 2 point gait C.) 3 point gait D.) 4 point gaot C.) 3 point gait For patients who have an acute condition, with pain at rest, and appropriate education intervention includes teacher PRICE. What is the correct explanation for the PRICE protocol? A.) Protect, range of motion, inspect, compression, electrical stimulation B.) Protect, rest, ice, compression, elevation C.) Protect, rest, inspect, cold compress, elevation D.) Prevent, range of motion, ice, compression, elevation B.) Protect, rest, ice, compression, elevation Which disorder is a painful condition of abnormal calcification within a muscle belly? A.) Bursitis B.) Torticollis C.) Gout D.) Myositis ossificans D.) Myositic ossificans Which type of disc bulge or herniation is most common in the cervical spine? A.) Posterior lateral bulge/ herniation B.) Central posterior bulge/ herniation C.) Disc bulge/ herniation does not occur in the cervical spine D.) Anterior bulge/ herniation B.) Central posterior bulge/herniation The PTA is working with a 4 month old infant with torticollis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate to build strength in the head and neck musculature? A.) Position the child in supported sitting and facilitate visual tracking of toy B.) Supine position, reaching for a toy C.) Seated without support and visually tracking a rattle D.) Prone on elbows position, reaching for a toy A.) Position the child in supported sitting and facilitate visual tracking of toy The PTA is providing fall risk-reduction education to an elderly patient. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate home strategy? A.) All cords are tucked away B.) Phone is within easy reach C.) Low lighting is utilized D.) Scatter rugs removed C.) Low lighting is utilized