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1. Which of the following securities may a Series 6 representative sell? A. Individual stocks B. Exchange-traded options C. Closed-end funds in the secondary market D. Open-end mutual funds Answer: D Series 6 reps may sell primary offerings of redeemable securities such as mutual funds, UITs, and variable contracts. 2. A mutual fund’s NAV increases when: A. Market value of portfolio increases B. More shares are redeemed C. The fund pays a dividend D. New shares are is...

1. A key distinction of CAIA Level II’s approach to portfolio construction in alternatives is: A. A focus on security selection over factor exposures B. Minimizing tracking error versus traditional benchmarks C. Emphasizing risk-factor integration across alternative assets D. Using benchmark replication for illiquid assets Answer: C Level II emphasizes multi-factor risk integration across alternatives rather than stand-alone asset class views. 2. The primary driver of return ...

1. Which of the following best describes an alternative investment? A. A publicly traded equity B. A traditional government bond C. A non-traditional asset class with low liquidity D. A savings deposit Answer: C Alternative investments are typically less liquid, less regulated, and exhibit distinct risk-return characteristics. 2. Hedge funds are primarily regulated through: A. Standardized reporting requirements B. Bank capital adequacy rules C. Private offering exemptions ...

1. Which of the following best describes wrong-way risk (WWR)? A. Risk that exposure decreases when counterparty credit quality deteriorates B. Risk that exposure is independent of counterparty credit quality C. Risk that exposure increases when counterparty credit quality deteriorates D. Risk that exposure decreases when counterparty credit quality improves Answer: C WRR occurs when counterparty risk increases simultaneously with exposure, amplifying losses. 2. Which metho...

1. A newly admitted incarcerated patient reports a history of asthma and brings no medications. The first nursing action is to: A. Arrange a scheduled clinic visit in 3 days B. Bold: Assess airway, breathing, and initiate rescue inhaler if needed C. Document history and no action today D. Refer to mental health for stress-related symptoms italics: Acute respiratory status must be assessed immediately; if wheezing or distress present, administer rescue inhaler and follow emerg...

Certified Forensic Nurse Examiner (CFNE) exam Verified Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for Students||Already Graded A+

1. Which of the following is the most important first step when a patient who reports recent sexual assault presents to the emergency department? A. Begin forensic evidence collection B. Obtain a full sexual history C. Ensure the patient’s immediate safety and perform a medical assessment D. Notify law enforcement Immediate medical stabilization and assessment of injuries and safety come before forensic steps or reporting. 2. A trauma-informed approach includes all of the f...

Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner — Pediatric (SANE-P) exam Verified Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for Students||Already Graded A+

Certified Forensic Psychiatric Nurse (CFPN) exam Verified Questions, Correct Answers, and Detailed Explanations for Students||Already Graded A+

1. The primary role of an Advanced Forensic Nurse Examiner during evidence collection is to: A. Advocate for law enforcement B. Maintain patient safety and evidence integrity C. Determine guilt or innocence D. Provide legal interpretation Answer: B The AFNE’s priority is patient well-being and preserving evidence without bias. 2. Chain of custody begins: A. When evidence is handed to police B. When evidence is signed by the lab C. When the provider first collects or ide...