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Relapse Prevention Model a change model that is used primarily to assist people struggling with relapse and recovery from substance use Controlled Use vs. Complete Abstinence Exposure and Response Prevention Motivational Interviewing Gambling Disorder Intermittent Explosive Disorder Kleptomania Pyromania Oppositional Defiant Disorder Conduct Disorder

A 60-year-old patient complains of paresthesias and occasional nausea associated with one of the drugs she is taking. She is found to have hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. She is probably taking (A) Acetazolamide for glaucoma (B) Amiloride for edema associated with aldosteronism (C) Furosemide for severe hypertension and heart failure (D) Hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension (E) Mannitol for cerebral edema A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department because of a ...

Record keeping requirements for CS receptable liners - what to record - when to record What to record: - date - UIN - size - names/signatures of at least 2 witnessing employees When to record: - acquisition of unused liners - installation - removal/sealing - storage - transfer for destruction How can CS inventory be destroyed? (4 ways) 1) promptly destroy on-site 2) transfer to someone authorized to destroy 3) request assistance from DEA special agent in charge of the area ...

Step Wise TX for Asthma 1. SABA prn 2. low dose ICS or Cromolyn, LTRA, theophylline 3. Low dose ICS + LABA or medium dose CS 4. Medium dose ICS + LABA or medium dose CS or medium dose ICS + either LTRA, theophylline, or zileuton 5. high dose ICS +LABA + PO steroid and consider omalizumab How to use steps? check adherence, environmental control, forbid conditions. with each step (2-4) consider subs allergen immunotherapy for patients with allergic asthma. Use of SABA>2 days/week mea...

The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of clonidine [Catapres]. Which is the best description of the action of this drug? A. It selectively activates alpha2 receptors in the central nervous system (CNS) adrenergic blocker, clonidine's action occurs in the CNS. B. It causes peripheral activation of alpha1 and alpha2 receptors. C. It depletes sympathetic neurons of norepinephrine. D. It directly blocks alpha and beta receptors in the periphery -Clonidine is an alpha2-adrenergic agonis...

Dobutamine is an adrenergic agonist and catecholamine. What receptor specificity does this What is the action of dobutamine . In short, what does dobutamine do to the heart What is the major side effect of dobutamine What should be monitored closely when a patient is on an dobutamine infusion What is the classification of Phenylephrine (neo-synephrine) What receptor specificity does Phenylephrine (neo-synephrine) have Works on alpha 1 receptors What ...

Subcutaneous administration Basically the same properties as IM administration. Adrenergic receptors Are receptors that mediate responses to epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine. Cholinergic receptors Receptors that mediate responses to acetylcholine. Types of Cholinergic receptors nicotinicN, nicotinicM, and muscarinic receptors. Types of adrenergic receptors alpha1, alpha2, beta1, and beta2 receptors. Activation of Nicotinic N receptors Promotes ganglionic...

What body parts/locations does the stimulation of the muscarinic receptor subtype affect? (8) What are the effects of simulation of dopamine receptors? What are cholinesterase inhibitors? What is selectivity vs non-selectivity? What are adverse effects of alpha blockers? (5) Sodium retention and increased blood volume (d/t decreased BP, body tries to compensate by retaining sodium & water to raise BP - usually diuretic is given as well in this case) What is ...

Hepatotoxic drugs as some drugs undergo metabolism by the liver, they are converted to toxic products that can injure liver cells LFTs to assess liver function and hepatotoxicity AST & ALT QT Interval Drugs the ability of some medications to prolong the QT interval on the electrocardiogram, thereby creating a risk of serious dysrhythmias Patient at risk for adverse effects of QT drugs - Older adults - Patients with dysrhythmias - Low K and Mag - Women - Current use of othe...

A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action? a. Administering a direct dopamine antagonist b. Giving an anticholinergic medication c. Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug d. Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug ANS: B -The patient is showing s...

CNS stimulants adverse effects elevated mood, reduced fatigue, euphoria, talkativeness, wakefulness, appetite suppression, increased respiration, increase HR, elevated BP, tolerance and physical dependence, weight loss. Modafinil amphetamine stimulant for promoting wakefullness for narcolepsy, swing shift workers, and OSAHS. rapidly absorbed from GI tract. food decreases absorption. half life 15 hours. -SE: nausea, nervousenesss, diarrhea, rhinitis, can increase HR and BP. some experienc...

Newer Antiepileptic Drugs: Oxycarbazepine - Side Effects CNS Effects Hyponatremia Hypothyroidism Serious skin reactions: SJS, TEN Multiorgan hypersensitivity reactions Newer Antiepileptic Drugs: Lamotigrine - Action Blocks sodium channels Blocks calcium channels Decreases release of glutamate Newer Antiepileptic Drugs: Lamotigrine - Uses Adjunctive therapy for partial and tonic-clonic seizures Absence Seizures Bipolar D/O Newer Antiepileptic Drugs: Lamotigrine - Drug Interact...

NSG 4100 NURSING PRACTICE ADULT HEALTH EXAMS. FROM EXAM 1 TO EXAM 4. WIDELY COVERED TO HELP YOU PASS YOUR EXAMS.

CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure) Greater than 50 mm Hg normal Post-Op Complications: Craniotomy 1. ↑ ICP 2. Bleeding or Hypovolemic Shock 3. Fluid & Electrolyte 4. Infection 5. CSF Leaks 6. Seizures Meningitis type HIV/AIDS susceptible Cryptococcal Meningitis Risks & Prevention: Meningitis Prevention: Vaccine 11/12 yr and booster at 16 Risks: Unvaccinated 1st year college students & military Close contact w/meningococcal Meningitis Prophylaxis treatment within...

Exclusion criteria for tPA pregnancy, HTN- can be treated and then done, recent surgery, active bleeding, recent stroke Precautions with ITP and DIC bleeding Sudden cardiac arrest nursing interventions activate code and then chest compressions Torsade de pointe magnesium deficiency- treat electrolyte imbalance Afib meds amiodarone, anticoagulants SVT adenosine Vfib defib

An intensive care nurse is aware of the need to identify pt's who may be at risk of developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which fo the following ICU patient's most likely faces the highest risk of DIC? a. a patient w/ extensive burns b. a patient who has a dx of acute respiratory distress syndrome c. a patient who suffered multiple trauma in a. workplace accident d. a patient who is being treated for septic shock A patient is being treated for DIC and the nurs...

What do we do to treat ITP? -stop associated meds -immunosuppressants -corticosteroids -IVIG thrombopoietin receptor agonists -Romiplostim (Nplate) -Eltrombopag (Promacta) What is the nursing interventions for ITP? - avoid SULFA drugs - bleeding precautions -neuro assessment if WET PURPURA -no injections or rectal temps -NO PLATELETS, wont help What is HIT? -heparin induced thrombocytopenia -patients taking heparin create an antibody and that antibody sees platelets a...

Barotrauma can lead to pneumothorax subcutaneous emphysema pneumomediastinum pneumopericardium pulmonary edema Lung cancer risks smoking occupational chemical exposure asbestos Is crepitus expected after a chest tube placement? yes, but not good What do you do for symptomatic bradycardia give atropine How to treat a fib TEE then cardiovert to make sure they don't have any clots in the heart What do you do for VTACH with pulse cardiovert VTACH with...

What is the medical tx for chest contusion? - mechanical ventilation with PEEP - opioids - antimicrobials - Abx What is the medical tx for flail chest? It is life threatening 1. control pain first so they don't get a pneumothorax 2. bone takes 2-6 wks to heal 3. respiratory therapy (TCDB) In an emergency, how do we tx a pneuma/hemothorax? Plug the opening by sealing it with gauze impregnated with petrolatum Tall and fat white males are at risk for pneumothorax. Tru...

Cushing’s syndrome diagnosis -high cortisol all day -3x normal range in urine sample -anything can cause false high cortisol levels Normal cortisol levels 10-20 Normal urine cortisol levels 3.5-45 Cushing’s syndrome treatment -adrenalectomy (risk of CSF leak) -hydrocortisone post op can help adrenal insufficiency -insulin for peptic ulcer Cushing’s syndrome nursing interventions -reposition (risk for peptic ulcers) -monitor BG -monitor