ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2026 (NGN) Exam Prep |
High-Yield Practice Questions with Detailed Rationales
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV furosemide. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Urine output 900 mL over 8 hours B. Potassium level 2.9 mEq/L C. Blood pressure
132/78 mm Hg D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias and requires prompt treatment.
Question 2
Which assessment finding is expected in a client with left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema B. Jugular vein distention C. Crackles in both lungs D. Ascites
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion resulting in crackles.
Question 3
A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer heparin B. Hold the medication and notify the provider C. Encourage
foods rich in vitamin K D. Increase the dose
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR above the therapeutic range significantly increases bleeding risk.
Question 4
Which laboratory value is the priority for a client receiving chemotherapy?
A. Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL B. Platelets 180,000/mm³ C. WBC 1,900/mm³ D. Sodium 138
mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe leukopenia places the client at high risk for infection.
Question 5
,A nurse is reinforcing teaching about insulin lispro. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A. “I’ll take it 1 hour before meals.” B. “I’ll eat immediately after taking it.” C. “I’ll take it
before bedtime.” D. “I’ll skip meals after taking it.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Lispro acts rapidly and should be followed immediately by a meal.
Question 6
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. COPD client with oxygen saturation of 92% B. Postoperative client reporting sudden
shortness of breath C. Diabetic client with glucose of 180 mg/dL D. Client
requesting pain medication
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea may indicate pulmonary embolism.
Question 7
A client with bacterial meningitis should be placed on which precautions?
A. Airborne B. Contact C. Droplet D. Protective
Answer: C
Rationale: Droplet precautions are indicated until at least 24 hours after effective
antibiotics.
Question 8
Which finding indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Blood pressure 140/88 B. Respiratory rate 8/min C. Urine output 45 mL/hr D. Deep
tendon reflexes 2+
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a life-threatening sign of toxicity.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy. Which assessment is priority?
A. Voice quality B. Appetite C. Bowel sounds D. Skin color
, Answer: A
Rationale: Hoarseness may indicate laryngeal nerve injury or airway edema.
Question 10
Which food should a client taking MAOIs avoid?
A. Apples B. Fresh chicken C. Aged cheese D. Rice
Answer: C
Rationale: Tyramine-rich foods may precipitate hypertensive crisis.
Question 11
A client has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which ECG change is expected?
A. Flattened T waves B. Tall peaked T waves C. Prolonged QT interval D. U waves
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia commonly produces peaked T waves.
Question 12
Which intervention prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia?
A. Supine positioning B. Oral care with chlorhexidine C. Restricting fluids D. Daily chest
X-ray
Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent oral care reduces bacterial colonization.
Question 13
Which client has the highest priority?
A. BP 170/92 with headache B. Chest pain rated 8/10 C. Temperature 100.4°F D. Blood
glucose 210 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute chest pain may indicate myocardial infarction.
Question 14
Which electrolyte imbalance causes muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias?
A. Hypernatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia
High-Yield Practice Questions with Detailed Rationales
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV furosemide. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Urine output 900 mL over 8 hours B. Potassium level 2.9 mEq/L C. Blood pressure
132/78 mm Hg D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias and requires prompt treatment.
Question 2
Which assessment finding is expected in a client with left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema B. Jugular vein distention C. Crackles in both lungs D. Ascites
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion resulting in crackles.
Question 3
A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8. Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer heparin B. Hold the medication and notify the provider C. Encourage
foods rich in vitamin K D. Increase the dose
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR above the therapeutic range significantly increases bleeding risk.
Question 4
Which laboratory value is the priority for a client receiving chemotherapy?
A. Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL B. Platelets 180,000/mm³ C. WBC 1,900/mm³ D. Sodium 138
mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe leukopenia places the client at high risk for infection.
Question 5
,A nurse is reinforcing teaching about insulin lispro. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A. “I’ll take it 1 hour before meals.” B. “I’ll eat immediately after taking it.” C. “I’ll take it
before bedtime.” D. “I’ll skip meals after taking it.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Lispro acts rapidly and should be followed immediately by a meal.
Question 6
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. COPD client with oxygen saturation of 92% B. Postoperative client reporting sudden
shortness of breath C. Diabetic client with glucose of 180 mg/dL D. Client
requesting pain medication
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea may indicate pulmonary embolism.
Question 7
A client with bacterial meningitis should be placed on which precautions?
A. Airborne B. Contact C. Droplet D. Protective
Answer: C
Rationale: Droplet precautions are indicated until at least 24 hours after effective
antibiotics.
Question 8
Which finding indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Blood pressure 140/88 B. Respiratory rate 8/min C. Urine output 45 mL/hr D. Deep
tendon reflexes 2+
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a life-threatening sign of toxicity.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy. Which assessment is priority?
A. Voice quality B. Appetite C. Bowel sounds D. Skin color
, Answer: A
Rationale: Hoarseness may indicate laryngeal nerve injury or airway edema.
Question 10
Which food should a client taking MAOIs avoid?
A. Apples B. Fresh chicken C. Aged cheese D. Rice
Answer: C
Rationale: Tyramine-rich foods may precipitate hypertensive crisis.
Question 11
A client has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which ECG change is expected?
A. Flattened T waves B. Tall peaked T waves C. Prolonged QT interval D. U waves
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia commonly produces peaked T waves.
Question 12
Which intervention prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia?
A. Supine positioning B. Oral care with chlorhexidine C. Restricting fluids D. Daily chest
X-ray
Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent oral care reduces bacterial colonization.
Question 13
Which client has the highest priority?
A. BP 170/92 with headache B. Chest pain rated 8/10 C. Temperature 100.4°F D. Blood
glucose 210 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute chest pain may indicate myocardial infarction.
Question 14
Which electrolyte imbalance causes muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias?
A. Hypernatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia
