EMT-B Final Exam Test Bank (answered) 2022.

EMT-B Final Exam Test Bank (answered) 2022. Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? a) A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. b) The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. c) A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. d) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: a) establish the patient's medical history early. b) ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient. c) perform a careful and thorough assessment. d) take note of the patient's general appearance. When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: a) ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. b) stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. c) assess his mental status by having him move his head. d) approach him from behind and ask him not to move. External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of: a) elevation and pressure point control. b) direct pressure and a tourniquet. c) elevation and chemical ice packs. d) direct pressure and elevation. After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to: a) identify less obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. b) find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life. c) determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. d) look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. When performing a full-body scan on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? a) posterior b) anterior chest c) extremities d) abdomen After the first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury: a) most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. b) the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. c) the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. d) the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. When performing a full-body scan on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle's sign. This is defined as: a) bruising behind the ear. b) swelling to the orbital area. c) fluid drainage from the nose. d) unequal pupils. A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: a) Korotkoff sounds. b) subcutaneous emphysema. c) crepitus d) rhonchi. Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: a) sitting up at a 45° angle. b) in a prone position. c) in a supine position. d) in a recumbent position. Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? a) a marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing b) multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall c) only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls d) one side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: a) the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. b) the way in which traumatic injuries occur. c) your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. d) a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: a) mechanism of injury. b) potential energy. c) index of suspicion. d) kinetic energy. Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? a) The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. b) The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. c) Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. d) High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: a) gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. b) low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. c) motor vehicle collisions and stabbings. d) falls and motor vehicle collisions. What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? a) rotational and rollover b) lateral and rollover c) Rear-end and rotational d) frontal and rotational Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? a) forehead lacerations b) aortic rupture c) extremity fractures d) flail chest If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: a) rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. b) allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. c) transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. d) suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: a) suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. b) realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. c) recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe. d) remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first: a) evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. b) determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. c) determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle. d) approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) the height of the fall. b) the primary impact point. c) the speed of the fall. d) the surface struck. If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? a) impaled objects b) severe burns c) stomach rupture d) fractured bones A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: a) damage to internal structures. b) injury to the cervical spine. c) alterations in his mental status. d) potential airway compromise. In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: a) have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes. b) be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. c) have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day. d) be involved in trauma prevention programs. Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? a) adequate blood in the vasculature b) an effectively pumping heart c) an intact system of blood vessels d) the filtering of blood cells in the spleen Hypoperfusion is another name for: a) cellular death. b) hypoxemia. c) shock. d) cyanosis. Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. a) 5% b) 20% c) 10% d) 15% What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult? a) 6.50 L b) 6.25 L c) 5.25 L d) 5.50 L Hypovolemic shock occurs when: a) at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. b) the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. c) the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. d) the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: a) systolic blood pressure. b) clinical signs and symptoms. c) the mechanism of injury. d) poor general appearance. In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control? a) antecubital vein laceration and a blood pressure of 138/92 mm Hg b) femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg c) carotid artery laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg d) jugular vein laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: a) diaphoresis and pale skin. b) weakness or dizziness. c) a heart rate over 120 beats/min. d) a low blood pressure. Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: a) hematemesis. b) hemoptysis. c) dyspnea. d) hematuria. After applying a pressure dressing to a laceration on a patient's arm, you notice that blood is slowly beginning to saturate it. You should: a) replace the dressing with another dressing. b) splint the arm and keep it below heart level. c) place additional dressings over the wound. d) apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: a) additional sterile dressings. b) digital pressure to a proximal artery. c) a tourniquet proximal to the injury. d) a splint and elevate the extremity. Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: a) you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. b) bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. c) the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. d) the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? a) muscular layer b) subcutaneous layer c) dermis d) epidermis Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) regulation of body temperature. b) sending information to the brain. c) the production of key antibodies. d) maintenance of water balance. A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): a) contusion. b) crush injury. c) abrasion. d) hematoma. A hematoma develops when: a) small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. b) large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. c) cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged. d) severe swelling compromises arterial circulation. Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? a) With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. b) Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. c) Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. d) Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is: a) extreme redness to the injury site. b) a lack of pain despite the severity of the injury. c) pain out of proportion to the injury. d) a bounding pulse distal to the injury. An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): a) avulsion. b) amputation. c) laceration. d) incision. Common signs and symptoms of an airway burn include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) soot around the mouth. b) hoarseness. c) chest pressure. d) singed nasal hair. According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to _____ of his or her total BSA. a) 4% b) 2% c) 1% d) 6% A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. a) 45% b) 36% c) 18% d) 27% You and your partner arrive at the scene of a house fire where fire fighters have rescued a 50-year-old male from his burning house. The patient has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his face and chest. His nasal hairs are singed and he is coughing up sooty sputum. You should be MOST concerned with: a) preventing the risk of infection. b) the potential for airway swelling. c) treating him for hypothermia. d) estimating the extent of his burns. Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) prevention of contamination. b) immobilization of the injury. c) control of external hemorrhage. d) protection from further injury. The lower jawbone is called the: a) maxillae. b) zygoma. c) mastoid. d) mandible. The Adam's apple is: a) the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. b) below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. c) the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. d) the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. When a light is shone into the pupil: a) the opposite pupil should dilate. b) it should become smaller in size. c) both pupils should dilate together. d) it should become larger in size. Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: a) contact lenses. b) a brain injury. c) retinitis. d) conjunctivitis. The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: a) mandibular immobility. b) damage to the eyes. c) cervical spine injury. d) airway compromise. The skin and underlying tissues of the face: a) swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. b) have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely. c) are well protected by the maxillae and mandible. d) contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers. Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): a) displaced mandible. b) airway obstruction. c) basilar skull fracture. d) spinal cord injury. You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: a) quickly suction his oropharynx. b) reassess his breathing adequacy. c) alert the hospital of the situation. d) turn the backboard onto its side. A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: a) scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. b) cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline. c) cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. d) remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator. A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: a) flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. b) mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. c) irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. d) neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: a) careful monitoring her vital signs. b) rapidly transporting her to the hospital. c) requesting a paramedic ambulance. d) quickly immobilizing her spinal column. Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): a) crushed cricoid. b) laryngeal fracture. c) esophageal tear. d) collapsed trachea. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: a) cerebellum and brain. b) cerebrum and meninges. c) meninges and spinal cord. d) brain and spinal cord. The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. a) cerebral cortex b) spinal cord c) cerebellum d) brain stem The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. a) 6 b) 8 c) 7 d) 5 Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) CSF leakage from the ears. b) constricted pupils. c) decreased sensory function. d) combative behavior. The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: a) a skull fracture. b) acute hypotension. c) a hypoxic seizure. d) cerebral edema. Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have: a) an accompanying spinal injury. b) a history of diabetes mellitus. c) internal bleeding in the abdomen. d) a severe intracranial hemorrhage. Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: a) it causes a problem managing the ABCs. b) lateral immobilization has been applied. c) the patient adamantly denies neck pain. d) sensory and motor functions remain intact. When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: a) the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. b) the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. c) the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. d) an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: a) have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. b) ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head. c) secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. d) follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: a) are found supine and have stable vital signs. b) are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable. c) are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. d) require prompt extrication from an automobile. If you do not have the appropriate size cervical collar, you should: a) ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. b) place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. c) defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks. d) use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: a) it interferes with your assessment of the airway. b) the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. c) the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. d) the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: a) paralysis of the intercostal muscles. b) immediate cardiac arrest. c) paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. d) paralysis of the diaphragm. Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: a) there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles. b) they require less tidal volume per breath. c) their chest wall and ribs are very pliable. d) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: a) intercostal margin. b) diaphragm. c) anterior rib cage. d) costovertebral angle. Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of: a) a massive cardiac contusion. b) a tension pneumothorax. c) traumatic aortic rupture. d) penetrating lung injuries. During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: a) make note of it and continue your assessment. b) request a paramedic to decompress the chest. c) stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing. d) reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing. An open pneumothorax occurs when: a) air enters the pleural space from outside the body. b) air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung. c) a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. d) extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of: a) blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall. b) excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis. c) exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect. d) abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy. Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) bulging intercostal muscles. b) collapsed jugular veins. c) profound cyanosis. d) unilaterally absent breath sounds. The MOST critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves: a) placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest. b) surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged. c) assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume. d) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space. Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? a) widening pulse pressure b) engorged jugular veins c) a rapid, irregular pulse d) diminished breath sounds Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: a) your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade. b) at least half of one lung has completely collapsed. c) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung. d) blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung Patients with rib fractures will commonly: a) take a series of deep breaths. b) breathe rapidly and shallowly. c) prefer to lie in a supine position. d) develop a sucking chest wound. A flail chest occurs when: a) multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. b) a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. c) a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. d) more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occurred? a) collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest b) asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta c) ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle d) fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: a) kidney. b) spleen. c) liver. d) stomach. Peritonitis, an intense inflammatory reaction of the abdominal cavity, usually occurs when: a) hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents. b) the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. c) solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. d) bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: a) guarding. b) withdrawing. c) flexing. d) referring. Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: a) vital signs should be monitored frequently. b) the EMT must perform a thorough exam. c) prompt transport to the hospital is essential. d) the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: a) peritonitis may not develop for several hours. b) it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. c) it commonly protrudes through the injury site. d) the abdomen will become instantly distended. Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? a) stomach b) liver c) intestine d) bladder You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen by her boyfriend. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if: a) law enforcement is at the scene. b) the patient is conscious. c) the severity of the injury is known. d) there are other patients involved. Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? a) Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. b) The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. c) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. d) Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: a) may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. b) is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. c) results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. d) often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is: a) hematuria. b) hemoptysis. c) hematochezia. d) hematemesis. Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. a) connective b) involuntary c) smooth d) striated Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: a) ligaments. b) fascia. c) tendons. d) cartilage. Bone marrow produces: a) electrolytes. b) lymphocytes. c) platelets. d) blood cells. A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): a) break in the continuity of the bone. b) total loss of function in a bone. c) disruption in the midshaft of a bone. d) abnormality in the structure of a bone. The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: a) strain. b) sprain. c) dislocation. d) fracture. A subluxation occurs when: a) a fracture and a dislocation exist. b) a joint is incompletely dislocated. c) a bone develops a hairline fracture. d) ligaments are partially severed. An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: a) the overlying skin is no longer intact. b) bone ends protrude through the skin. c) a large laceration overlies the fracture. d) a bullet shatters the underlying bone. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? a) moderate sprain b) hairline fracture c) displaced fracture d) severe strain The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: a) guarding. b) severe swelling. c) point tenderness. d) obvious bruising. Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? a) Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. b) In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. c) Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. d) Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? a) nondisplaced long bone fractures b) bilateral femur fractures c) an amputated extremity d) pelvic fracture with hypotension Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT: a) evaluating proximal pulses. b) assessing motor function. c) determining capillary refill. d) assessing sensory function. During your rapid secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: a) applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. b) immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting. c) applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and transporting. d) carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities. In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: a) transport time is less than 15 minutes. b) the patient is clinically unstable. c) deformity and swelling are present. d) the patient is in severe pain. The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: a) maximize distal circulation. b) facilitate ambulance transport. c) prevent further injury. d) make the patient comfortable. In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? a) if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes b) if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain c) when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent d) if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: a) hip. b) pelvis. c) humerus. d) femur. The PASG is absolutely contraindicated in patients who have: a) bilateral femur fractures. b) any trauma below the pelvis. c) pelvic fractures. d) pulmonary edema. The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: a) delaying transport of a critically injured patient. b) aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. c) reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. d) compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should: a) splint the elbow in the position found and transport. b) gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation. c) gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. d) apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling. When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: a) in an extended position. b) in a straight position. c) in a functional position. d) into a fist. Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? a) femur b) hip c) pelvis d) humerus A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: a) femoral shaft. b) proximal femur. c) pubic symphysis. d) pelvic girdle. Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. a) 2,000 b) 1,500 c) 1,000 d) 4,000 The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called: a) convection. b) radiation. c) evaporation. d) conduction. The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: a) conduction. b) radiation. c) convection. d) evaporation. Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: a) cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. b) the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). c) air temperature is greater than body temperature. d) warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: a) 90°F (32°C). b) 98°F (37°C). c) 95°F (35°C). d) 88°F (31°C). A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: a) 90°F (32°C). b) 95°F (35°C). c) 92°F (33°C). d) 94°F (34°C). Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause: a) pulseless electrical activity. b) ventricular tachycardia. c) profound bradycardia. d) ventricular fibrillation. Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) tachycardia. b) hot, dry skin. c) nausea. d) headache. Heatstroke occurs when: a) a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. b) the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high. c) a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). d) the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: a) water in the lungs following submersion in water. b) temporary survival after submersion in water. c) death from suffocation after submersion in water. d) death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water. The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: a) increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand. b) laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. c) tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. d) bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) pale skin. b) dysphasia. c) joint pain. d) dizziness. While drinking beer with his friends near a creek, a 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: a) applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. b) supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. c) elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. d) transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. The umbilical cord: a) separates from the placenta shortly after birth. b) carries blood away from the baby via the artery. c) contains two veins and one large umbilical artery. d) carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. The onset of labor begins with: a) thinning of the uterus. b) increased fetal movement. c) contractions of the uterus. d) full dilation of the cervix. The third stage of labor begins when the: a) cervix is completely dilated. b) baby is expelled from the vagina. c) placenta is fully delivered. d) umbilical cord has been clamped. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: a) dyspnea and bradycardia. b) headache and edema. c) marked hypoglycemia. d) dysuria and constipation. Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: a) seizures that result from severe hypertension. b) high levels of protein in the patient's urine. c) a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg. d) hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. Abruptio placenta occurs when: a) the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. b) a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. c) the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. d) the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening. Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: a) delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. b) development of the placenta over the cervical opening. c) premature placental separation from the uterine wall. d) abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: a) that the baby's airway may be obstructed. b) that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. c) that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. d) an expected finding in full-term infants. Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? a) rupture of the amniotic sac b) irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes c) expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina d) crowning of the baby's head During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: a) babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. b) it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx. c) the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning. d) suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? a) Allow the mother to hold her baby. b) Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse. c) Begin assisting the newborn's breathing. d) Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: a) cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. b) gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery. c) carefully push the cord back into the vagina. d) push the infant's head away from the cord. Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size. B. weight and speed. C. mass and weight. D. speed and force. A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Nonintact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the "three-collision" effect that occurs during a high- speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? A. Extensive damage to the automobile B. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures C. Massive external trauma with severe bleeding D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find: A. deployed airbags. B. steering wheel deformity. C. starring of the windshield. D. a crushed instrument panel. An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: A. trauma to the pelvis. B. blunt abdominal trauma. C. a severe closed head injury. D. penetrating thoracic trauma. Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts. A. rear-end B. rollover C. frontal D. lateral Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries. B. airbag-related trauma. C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle. Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: A. stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound. B. the majority of the internal trauma will be near the path of the knife. C. most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury. D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury was MOST likely caused by ___________ blast injuries. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Venules D. Plasma Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the removal of adequate amounts of carbon dioxide during exhalation. B. the intake of adequate amounts of oxygen during the inhalation phase. C. circulation of blood within an organ with sufficient amounts of oxygen. D. the production of carbon dioxide, which accumulates at the cellular level. A man involved in a motorcycle crash has multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which of the following injuries has the HIGHEST treatment priority? A. Widespread abrasions to the back with pinkish ooze B. 3" laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood C. Laceration to the forearm with obvious debris in the wound D. 1" laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood Which of the following sets of vital signs is LEAST indicative of internal bleeding? A. BP, 140/90 mm Hg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min B. BP, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse rate, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min C. BP, 98/60 mm Hg; pulse rate, 110 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min D. BP, 102/48 mm Hg; pulse rate, 100 beats/min; respirations, 22 breaths/min When caring for a patient with internal bleeding, the EMT must first: A. ensure a patent airway. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. control any external bleeding. D. take appropriate standard precautions. The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is: A. a pressure bandage. B. direct pressure and elevation. C. a splint. D. a tourniquet. When applying a tourniquet to an amputated arm, the EMT should: A. use the narrowest bandage possible. B. avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint. C. cover the tourniquet with a sterile bandage. D. use rope to ensure that the tourniquet is tight. A 70-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. When you arrive, you find him leaning over a basin, which contains an impressive amount of blood. He has a history of coronary artery disease, diabetes, and migraine headaches. His BP is 180/100 and his heart rate is 100 beats/min. Which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor to his nosebleed? A. His blood pressure B. His history of diabetes C. The fact that he is elderly D. His heart rate of 100 beats/min When caring for a patient with severe epistaxis, the MOST effective way to prevent aspiration of blood is to: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and lean the patient back. B. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning forward. C. place the patient supine with his or her head in the flexed position. D. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning backward. Controlling internal bleeding requires: A. applying a tourniquet. B. surgery in a hospital. C. positioning the patient in the sitting position. D. providing slow and considerate transport A young male was struck in the forearm with a baseball and complains of pain to the area. Slight swelling and ecchymosis are present, but no external bleeding. Which type of injury does this describe? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Hematoma D. Avulsion A compression injury that is severe enough to cut off blood flow below the injury is called: A. a contusion. B. a hematoma. C. a local thrombus. D. compartment syndrome A 45-year-old convenience store clerk was shot in the right anterior chest during a robbery. Your assessment reveals that the wound has blood bubbling from it every time the patient breathes. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. prevent air from entering the wound. B. cover the wound with a bulky dressing. C. assess the patient's back for an exit wound. D. transport the patient promptly to the closest trauma center What effects will the application of an ice have on a hematoma? A. Vasodilation and increased pain B. Vasodilation and decreased bleeding C. Vasoconstriction and increased swelling D. Vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding The primary reason for applying a sterile dressing to an open injury is to: A. prevent contamination. B. control external bleeding. C. reduce the risk of infection. D. minimize any internal bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to dress and bandage an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel protruding from it is to: A. cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing and apply firm pressure. B. apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and apply firm pressure. C. apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing. D. carefully replace the protruding bowel into the abdomen and cover the wound. A 22-year-old male was attacked by a rival gang and has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A. carefully remove the knife, control any bleeding, begin CPR, and transport. B. stabilize the knife in place, provide rescue breathing, and transport at once. C. remove the knife and control any bleeding, apply the AED, and analyze his rhythm. D. begin CPR, control any external bleeding, and transport rapidly to a trauma center Which of the following is considered a severe burn? A. Any full-thickness burn B. 20% partial-thickness burn C. 10% full-thickness burn with abrasions D. 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture A 5-year-old boy was burned when he pulled a barbecue grill over on himself. He has partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest and circumferentially on both arms. What percentage of his body surface area has been burned? A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45% Which of the following statements regarding chemical burns is FALSE? A. Most chemical burns are caused by strong acids or alkalis. B. Fumes of strong chemicals can cause burns to the respiratory tract. C. Prior to removing a dry chemical, you should flush the area with sterile water. D. You should not attempt to neutralize an acid burn with an alkaline chemical. Which of the following statements regarding the "Adam's apple" is FALSE? A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. B. It is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. It is the uppermost part of the larynx. D. It is more prominent in men than in women. The globe of the eye is also called the: A. lens. B. orbit. C. retina. D. eyeball. When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should: A. dilate. B. constrict. C. remain the same size. D. dilate, and then constrict. When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should: A. prevent contamination of the opposite eye. B. immediately cover the injured eye with a sterile dressing. C. avoid irrigating the eye, as this may cause further injury. D. irrigate both eyes simultaneously, even if only one eye is injured. Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a head injury? A. Asymmetrical pupils B. Pupillary constriction to bright light C. Both eyes moving in opposite directions D. Inability to look upward when instructed to The purpose of the eustachian tube is to: A. move in response to sound waves. B. transmit impulses from the brain to the ear. C. equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes. D. house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance. When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with: A. spinal trauma. B. airway compromise. C. associated eye injuries. D. severe external bleeding. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A. esophageal injury. B. cervical spine fracture. C. crushing tracheal injury. D. carotid artery laceration. A 21-year-old male has a large laceration to his neck. When you assess him, you note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately: A. apply a pressure dressing to his neck. B. sit the patient up to slow the bleeding. C. place your gloved hand over the wound. D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea? A. Attempted suicide by hanging B. Gunshot wound to the lateral neck C. Car crash involving lateral impact D. Patient whose head hits the windshield The brain, a part of the central nervous system (CNS), is divided into the: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. cerebrum, brain stem, and spinal cord. C. cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord. D. spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebral cortex As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that: A. the scalp, unlike other parts of the body, has relatively fewer blood vessels. B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults. C. any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging. D. most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. subdural hematoma. C. concussion. D. contusion A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and "seeing stars," and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n): A. contusion. B. concussion. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracerebral hemorrhage. A young male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident, but remembers that he was going to a birthday party. What is the correct term to use when documenting his memory loss? A. Concussion B. Cerebral contusion C. Retrograde amnesia D. Anterograde amnesia A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: A. a diving accident. B. blunt neck trauma. C. hyperextension of the neck. D. hanging-type mechanisms. During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until: A. an appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed. B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard. C. a range of motion test of the neck has been completed. D. pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact. Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should: A. insert a nasal airway, assess his respirations, and give 100% oxygen. B. suction his airway and apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth. D. apply a cervical collar, suction his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations. A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should: A. gently rotate his head to correct the deformity. B. carefully hyperextend his neck to open his airway. C. apply an extrication collar with his head in the position found. D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position. You should NOT remove an injured football player's helmet if: A. a cervical spine injury is suspected, even if the helmet fits loosely. B. the patient has a patent airway, even if he has breathing difficulty. C. he has broken teeth, but only if the helmet does not fit snugly in place. D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury that kills almost one third of patients, usually within seconds, is: A. a hemothorax. B. aortic shearing. C. a pneumothorax. D. a ruptured myocardium. Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hemoptysis. B. hematemesis. C. asymmetrical chest movement. D. increased pain with breathing. During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. position the patient on the affected side. B. transport immediately. C. assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax. D. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be: A. hypovolemia. B. intrathoracic bleeding. C. ventilatory inadequacy. D. associated myocardial injury. What purpose does a one-way "flutter valve" serve when used on a patient with an open pneumothorax? A. It prevents air escape from within the chest cavity. B. It allows the release of air trapped in the pleural space. C. It only prevents air from entering an open chest wound. D. It allows air to freely move in and out of the chest cavity. Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. muffled heart tones. B. a weak, rapid pulse. C. collapsed jugular veins. D. narrowing pulse pressure. A patient experienced a severe compression to the chest when trapped between a vehicle and a brick wall. You suspect traumatic asphyxia due to the hemorrhage into the sclera of his eyes and which other sign? A. Flat neck veins B. Cyanosis in the face and neck C. Asymmetrical chest movement D. Irregular heart rate A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Myocardial contusion B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Commotio cordis D. Hemothorax Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with: A. a flail chest. B. a pneumothorax. C. isolated rib fractures. D. a ruptured diaphragm. A 40-year-old man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he: A. has injured his myocardium. B. has a collapsed lung and severe hypoxia. C. has extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac. D. is at extremely high risk for ventricular fibrillation. Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. stomach. Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Stomach D. Gallbladder Which of the following statements regarding intra-abdominal bleeding is FALSE? A. Intra-abdominal bleeding often causes abdominal distention. B. Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt force trauma. C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding. D. Bruising may not occur immediately following blunt abdominal trauma. Even when seatbelt are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the: A. chest. B. extremities. C. iliac crests. D. lower ribcage. While inspecting the interior of a wrecked automobile, you should be MOST suspicious that the driver experienced an abdominal injury if you find: A. a deformed steering wheel. B. that the airbags deployed. C. a crushed instrument panel. D. damage to the lower dashboard. Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include: A. placing dry towels over the open wound. B. cleaning the exposed bowel with sterile saline. C. applying the PASG to stop the associated bleeding. D. applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings. You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. Which position will he MOST likely prefer to assume? A. Sitting up B. Legs drawn up C. Legs outstretched D. On his right side A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. bladder. The term "hematuria" is defined as: A. blood in the stool. B. blood in the urine. C. vomiting up blood. D. urinary bladder rupture. When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should: A. use local pressure to control bleeding. B. carefully pack the vagina to reduce bleeding. C. remove any impaled objects from the vagina. D. cover any open wounds with moist, sterile dressings. Skeletal muscle is also referred to as: A. smooth muscle. B. striated muscle. C. autonomic muscle. D. involuntary muscle You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that: A. there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact. B. the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone. C. stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred. D. the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint. A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess: A. false motion. B. distal pulses. C. capillary refill. D. sensory and motor functions. The purpose of splinting a fracture is to: A. reduce the fracture if possible. B. prevent motion of bony fragments. C. reduce swelling in adjacent soft tissues. D. force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his mid-shaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves: A. applying rigid board splints. B. applying two traction splints. C. securing him to a long backboard. D. immobilizing his femurs with air splints To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply a(n): A. sling and swathe. B. air splint over the entire arm. C. rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling. D. traction splint to the arm of the injured side. A patient tripped, fell, and landed on her elbow. She is in severe pain and has obvious deformity to her elbow. You should: A. assess distal pulses. B. manually stabilize her injury. C. assess her elbow for crepitus. D. apply rigid board splints to her arm. When treating an open extremity fracture, you should: A. apply a splint and then dress the wound. B. dress the wound before applying a splint. C. irrigate the wound before applying a dressing. D. allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing. Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. Pelvic fracture B. Posterior hip dislocation C. Unilateral femur fracture D. Proximal humerus fracture A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves: A. wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow. B. splinting the leg in the position in which it was found. C. straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints. D. straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint. When a person is exposed to cold temperatures and strong winds for an extended period of time, he or she will lose heat mostly by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation. Shivering in the presence of hypothermia indicates that the: A. musculoskeletal system is damaged. B. nerve endings are damaged, causing loss of muscle control. C. body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity. D. thermoregulatory system has failed and body temperature is falling. All of the following are examples of passive rewarming techniques, EXCEPT: A. removing cold, wet clothing. B. administering warm fluids by mouth. C. turning up the heat inside the ambulance. D. covering the patient with warm blankets A woman has frostbite in both feet after walking several miles in a frozen field. Her feet are white, hard, and cold to the touch. Treatment at the scene should include: A. rubbing her feet gently with your own warm hands. B. trying to restore circulation by helping her to walk around. C. removing her wet clothing and rubbing her feet briskly with a warm, wet cloth. D. removing her wet clothing and covering her feet with dry, sterile dressings. A 30-year-old male, who has been playing softball all day in a hot environment, complains of weakness and nausea shortly after experiencing a syncopal episode. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. giving a salt-containing solution by mouth. B. moving him to a cooler environment at once. C. administering oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. placing him in a supine position and elevating his legs. You are assessing a 27-year-old woman with a heat-related emergency. Her skin is flushed, hot, and moist, and her level of consciousness is decreased. After moving her to a cool environment, managing her airway, and administering oxygen, you should: A. give her ice water to drink. B. place her in the recovery position. C. cover her with wet sheets and fan her. D. take her temperature with an axillary probe. It is important to remove a drowning victim from the water before laryngospasm relaxes because: A. the patient will suffer less airway trauma. B. the risk of severe hypothermia is lessened. C. less water will have entered the patient's lungs. D. you can ventilate the patient with laryngospasm. A 13-year-old girl is found floating face down in a swimming pool. Witnesses tell you that the girl had been practicing diving. After you and your partner safely enter the water, you should: A. turn her head to the side and give five back slaps. B. turn her head to the side and begin rescue breathing. C. rotate her entire body as a unit and carefully remove her from the pool. D. rotate the entire upper half of her body as a unit, supporting her head and neck. Shortly after ascending rapidly to the surface of the water while holding his breath, a 29-year-old diver begins coughing up pink, frothy sputum and complains of dyspnea and chest pain. You should suspect and treat this patient for: A. an air embolism. B. a pneumothorax. C. pneumomediastinum. D. decompression sickness. Three ambulances respond to a golf course where a group of six golfers were struck by lighting. Two of the golfers are conscious and alert with superficial skin burns (Group 1). The next two golfers have minor fractures and appear confused (Group 2). The last two golfers are in cardiac arrest (Group 3). According to reverse triage, which group of golfers should be treated FIRST? A. Group 1 B. Group 2 C. Group 3 D. Groups 1 and 2; Group 3 should be tagged as deceased The first stage of labor ends when: A. the presenting part of the baby is visible. B. contractions are less than 10 minutes apart. C. the mother experiences her first contraction. D. the amniotic sac ruptures and labor pains begin. A 23-year-old woman, who is 24 weeks pregnant with her first baby, complains of edema to her hands, a headache, and visual disturbances. When you assess her vital signs, you note that her blood pressure is 160/94 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing: A. eclampsia. B. preeclampsia. C. a hypertensive crisis. D. chronic water retention. You are transporting a woman who is 8 months pregnant. To prevent supine hypotensive syndrome, how should you position this patient? A. On her right side B. Supine C. Semi-Fowler's D. On her left side Immediately after delivery of the infant's head, you should: A. suction the baby's mouth and then nose. B. suction the baby's nose and then mouth. C. assess the baby's breathing effort and skin color. D. check the position of the umbilical cord. Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck.