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TBS Phase 3 Exam Study Companion 2025: In-Depth Review, Quizzes, and Explanations

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Anti-Armor Platoon composition: which element is part of the Anti-Armor Platoon headquarters? A. Section Leader and three mortar teams B. Platoon Commander (PC), Platoon Sergeant (PS), messenger/driver C. Company XO and four sniper teams D. Battalion S-3 staff element B. Platoon Commander (PC), Platoon Sergeant (PS), messenger/driver Rationale: The Anti-Armor Platoon HQ is a small team (PC, PS, and support such as a messenger/driver) to run the platoon. Option A describes mortar unit elements (not anti-armor HQ). Option C mixes company-level staff and sniper teams (not correct for anti-armor platoon HQ). Option D is a higher-level (battalion) staff, not the platoon HQ. Javelin section organization: which is true about a Javelin section? A. It is crew-served and requires four men per missile team. B. Eight Javelin missiles per section with one missile per engagement team. C. The Javelin is a wire-guided system requiring vehicle launch only. D. The Javelin cannot be used in a top-attack mode. B. Eight Javelin missiles per section with one missile per engagement team. Rationale: A Javelin section typically fields multiple launch teams (one missile per team is common) and the section inventory cited is eight Javelins. Option A misstates typical crew size and role. Option C is incorrect — Javelin is a fire-and-forget missile (not wire-guided). Option D is wrong because Javelin has a top-attack capability. M41 TOW Saber System characteristics: which statement is correct? A. It is a shoulder-fired, man-portable, fire-and-forget system. B. It weighs about 300 lb and can be tripod or vehicle mounted. C. It has a maximum effective range of 65 meters. D. It uses an infrared homing seeker. B. It weighs about 300 lb and can be tripod or vehicle mounted. Rationale: The M41/TOW is a heavy, tube-launched, optically tracked, wire command-link missile system (~300 lb) fired from tripods or vehicles. Option A describes man-portable systems (Javelin/MK153), not the TOW. Option C confuses minimum ranges; 65 m is a Javelin minimum direct attack. Option D is incorrect — TOW uses wire command guidance with an optically tracked system. Heavy Machine Gun Platoon organization: which is true about the heavy machine gun platoon? A. It contains three sections each fielding two .50 cal and two 40mm grenade launchers. B. It only uses M240B medium machine guns with no .50 cals. C. It is organized as a single squad with six M2A1 guns per squad. D. It never includes a platoon headquarters element. A. It contains three sections each fielding two .50 cal and two 40mm grenade launchers. Rationale: The heavy MG platoon fields both M2 .50 cal and MK19 40mm launchers distributed across sections (e.g., two of each per section). Option B is false because M2 and MK19 are included. Option C is incorrect — the organization is sectioned, not a single squad. Option D is false because a platoon HQ is required. Scout Sniper Platoon employment: which best describes the Scout Sniper Platoon? A. Organic to the rifle company and never attached to higher echelons. B. Attached to the Battalion H&S Company and contains team elements for long-range precision fires. C. Equipped primarily with automatic grenade launchers and heavy machine guns. D. Focused exclusively on breaching operations using SMAWs. B. Attached to the Battalion H&S Company and contains team elements for long-range precision fires. Rationale: Scout Sniper Plt is typically an attached asset under BN H&S Co and provides long- range precision engagement (sniper teams). Option A is incorrect (it’s normally at battalion level). Option C describes heavy direct-fire weapons, not sniper doctrine. Option D is incorrect — SMAWs are assault/anti-armor weapons, not sniper systems. M224 60mm mortar performance: which statement is accurate? A. The M224 weighs about 40 lb and has a maximum effective range near 3,500 meters. B. The M224 is a vehicle-mounted 120mm mortar. C. Its sustained rate of fire is 60 rpm indefinitely. D. It cannot fire illumination rounds. A. The M224 weighs about 40 lb and has a maximum effective range near 3,500 meters. Rationale: The M224 60mm mortar weighs ~40 lb with max effective range ≈3,500 m and has specific rate limits (max 30 rpm short bursts, sustained ~20 rpm). Option B is wrong (120mm is a different system). Option C overstates sustained rate. Option D is false — mortars can fire illum rounds. M240B medium machine gun facts: which is correct? A. It is belt-fed, air-cooled, and has a cyclic rate of ~650 rpm. B. It is a single-shot, bolt-action rifle. C. It cannot be tripod-mounted. D. It has an effective grazing fire range of 5,000 meters. A. It is belt-fed, air-cooled, and has a cyclic rate of ~650 rpm. Rationale: The M240B is a belt-fed, gas-operated, air-cooled MG with a cyclic ~650 rpm and effective ranges much shorter than 5,000 m. Option B describes bolt-action rifles (not MGs). Option C is incorrect — it can be tripod-mounted. Option D greatly overstates grazing/fire ranges. MK153 SMAW employment and limits: which is true about the MK153 SMAW? A. It is a one-man, 83 mm shoulder-fired rocket launcher with a spotting rifle and a max range around 1,800 m. B. It is a bolt-action sniper rifle. C. It uses guided wire-command missiles only. D. Its minimum safe employment distance is 500 m.

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TBS Phase 3 Exam Study Companion
2025: In-Depth Review, Quizzes, and
Explanations

Anti-Armor Platoon composition: which element is part of the Anti-Armor Platoon
headquarters?
A. Section Leader and three mortar teams
B. Platoon Commander (PC), Platoon Sergeant (PS), messenger/driver
C. Company XO and four sniper teams
D. Battalion S-3 staff element
B. Platoon Commander (PC), Platoon Sergeant (PS), messenger/driver
Rationale: The Anti-Armor Platoon HQ is a small team (PC, PS, and support such as a
messenger/driver) to run the platoon. Option A describes mortar unit elements (not anti-armor
HQ). Option C mixes company-level staff and sniper teams (not correct for anti-armor platoon
HQ). Option D is a higher-level (battalion) staff, not the platoon HQ.

Javelin section organization: which is true about a Javelin section?
A. It is crew-served and requires four men per missile team.
B. Eight Javelin missiles per section with one missile per engagement team.
C. The Javelin is a wire-guided system requiring vehicle launch only.
D. The Javelin cannot be used in a top-attack mode.
B. Eight Javelin missiles per section with one missile per engagement team.
Rationale: A Javelin section typically fields multiple launch teams (one missile per team is
common) and the section inventory cited is eight Javelins. Option A misstates typical crew size
and role. Option C is incorrect — Javelin is a fire-and-forget missile (not wire-guided). Option D
is wrong because Javelin has a top-attack capability.

M41 TOW Saber System characteristics: which statement is correct?
A. It is a shoulder-fired, man-portable, fire-and-forget system.
B. It weighs about 300 lb and can be tripod or vehicle mounted.
C. It has a maximum effective range of 65 meters.
D. It uses an infrared homing seeker.
B. It weighs about 300 lb and can be tripod or vehicle mounted.
Rationale: The M41/TOW is a heavy, tube-launched, optically tracked, wire command-link
missile system (~300 lb) fired from tripods or vehicles. Option A describes man-portable
systems (Javelin/MK153), not the TOW. Option C confuses minimum ranges; 65 m is a Javelin
minimum direct attack. Option D is incorrect — TOW uses wire command guidance with an
optically tracked system.

,Heavy Machine Gun Platoon organization: which is true about the heavy machine gun platoon?
A. It contains three sections each fielding two .50 cal and two 40mm grenade launchers.
B. It only uses M240B medium machine guns with no .50 cals.
C. It is organized as a single squad with six M2A1 guns per squad.
D. It never includes a platoon headquarters element.
A. It contains three sections each fielding two .50 cal and two 40mm grenade launchers.
Rationale: The heavy MG platoon fields both M2 .50 cal and MK19 40mm launchers distributed
across sections (e.g., two of each per section). Option B is false because M2 and MK19 are
included. Option C is incorrect — the organization is sectioned, not a single squad. Option D is
false because a platoon HQ is required.

Scout Sniper Platoon employment: which best describes the Scout Sniper Platoon?
A. Organic to the rifle company and never attached to higher echelons.
B. Attached to the Battalion H&S Company and contains team elements for long-range precision
fires.
C. Equipped primarily with automatic grenade launchers and heavy machine guns.
D. Focused exclusively on breaching operations using SMAWs.
B. Attached to the Battalion H&S Company and contains team elements for long-range
precision fires.
Rationale: Scout Sniper Plt is typically an attached asset under BN H&S Co and provides long-
range precision engagement (sniper teams). Option A is incorrect (it’s normally at battalion
level). Option C describes heavy direct-fire weapons, not sniper doctrine. Option D is incorrect
— SMAWs are assault/anti-armor weapons, not sniper systems.

M224 60mm mortar performance: which statement is accurate?
A. The M224 weighs about 40 lb and has a maximum effective range near 3,500 meters.
B. The M224 is a vehicle-mounted 120mm mortar.
C. Its sustained rate of fire is 60 rpm indefinitely.
D. It cannot fire illumination rounds.
A. The M224 weighs about 40 lb and has a maximum effective range near 3,500 meters.
Rationale: The M224 60mm mortar weighs ~40 lb with max effective range ≈3,500 m and has
specific rate limits (max 30 rpm short bursts, sustained ~20 rpm). Option B is wrong (120mm is
a different system). Option C overstates sustained rate. Option D is false — mortars can fire
illum rounds.

M240B medium machine gun facts: which is correct?
A. It is belt-fed, air-cooled, and has a cyclic rate of ~650 rpm.
B. It is a single-shot, bolt-action rifle.
C. It cannot be tripod-mounted.
D. It has an effective grazing fire range of 5,000 meters.
A. It is belt-fed, air-cooled, and has a cyclic rate of ~650 rpm.
Rationale: The M240B is a belt-fed, gas-operated, air-cooled MG with a cyclic ~650 rpm and
effective ranges much shorter than 5,000 m. Option B describes bolt-action rifles (not MGs).
Option C is incorrect — it can be tripod-mounted. Option D greatly overstates grazing/fire
ranges.

,MK153 SMAW employment and limits: which is true about the MK153 SMAW?
A. It is a one-man, 83 mm shoulder-fired rocket launcher with a spotting rifle and a max range
around 1,800 m.
B. It is a bolt-action sniper rifle.
C. It uses guided wire-command missiles only.
D. Its minimum safe employment distance is 500 m.
A. It is a one-man, 83 mm shoulder-fired rocket launcher with a spotting rifle and a max
range around 1,800 m.
Rationale: The SMAW is a shoulder-fired rocket launcher (~17 lb) with spotting rifle and max
ranges ~1,800 m; it is not a sniper rifle (B). Option C describes TOW/TOW-type systems (wire
guided). Option D gives an incorrect minimum distance (actual minimums are much shorter, ~7
m in the data).

MK153 SMAW ammunition types: which munition is employed against bunkers and light
fortifications?
A. HEAA (High Explosive Anti-Armor)
B. HEDM (High Explosive Dual-Purpose, Multi-target)
C. NE (Non-explosive training round)
D. Ball ammunition
B. HEDM (High Explosive Dual-Purpose, Multi-target)
Rationale: HEDM (or HEDP variants) are used against bunkers/field fortifications and soft
targets. HEAA is optimized against armor (option A) — useful but not the best for bunkers.
Option C mislabels NE (thermobaric/NE used against enclosed spaces) — actually NE referred
to thermobaric in the list; option D is not applicable to SMAW rockets.

M252 81mm mortar capabilities: which is correct?
A. The M252 is a 81mm mortar with a maximum effective range of about 5,700 meters and a
sustained rate near 15 rpm.
B. The M252 is a handheld anti-tank missile.
C. It is incapable of firing illumination rounds.
D. It has a crew of one individual only.
A. The M252 is a 81mm mortar with a maximum effective range of about 5,700 meters and
a sustained rate near 15 rpm.
Rationale: The M252 is an 81mm smoothbore mortar with those approximate performance
figures. Option B is incorrect (not a missile). Option C is false — mortars can fire illum. Option
D is wrong — mortar squads have multiple crew members.

Javelin system employment: which statement is accurate about the Javelin M98A2?
A. It is a fire-and-forget, soft-launch man-portable anti-tank missile with a maximum range
≈2,500 m and minimum direct attack distance ~65 m.
B. It requires a wire guidance link to the launcher for terminal guidance.
C. It is primarily used to suppress infantry at 10,000 m.
D. It cannot perform top-attack profiles.
A. It is a fire-and-forget, soft-launch man-portable anti-tank missile with a maximum
range ≈2,500 m and minimum direct attack distance ~65 m.
Rationale: Javelin is fire-and-forget with dual modes (direct/top attack), max range ~2,500 m,

, and minimum direct attack ~65 m. Option B is incorrect (wire guidance applies to TOW). Option
C vastly overstates range and role. Option D is false — top attack is a primary capability.

M2A1 .50 cal capabilities: which is true about the M2A1 .50 caliber machine gun?
A. It is a belt-fed, recoil-operated heavy machine gun with an effective range near 1,830 m and a
grazing fire range ~700 m.
B. It is a rocket launcher with tracer spotting rounds.
C. It has a maximum effective range of 100 m.
D. It is single-shot and bolt-action.
A. It is a belt-fed, recoil-operated heavy machine gun with an effective range near 1,830 m
and a grazing fire range ~700 m.
Rationale: The M2 .50 cal is a heavy crew-served MG with those ranges and characteristics.
Option B confuses it with rocket launchers. Options C and D are incorrect descriptions of a
heavy automatic weapon.

MK19 Mod 3 Automatic Grenade Launcher: which statement is correct?
A. The MK19 is a belt-fed, blowback-operated 40mm automatic grenade launcher with a
sustained rate ≈40 rpm and max effective range ~2,212 m.
B. It fires 7.62 mm ball ammunition.
C. It is a shoulder-fired single-use weapon.
D. It has no explosive rounds available.
A. The MK19 is a belt-fed, blowback-operated 40mm automatic grenade launcher with a
sustained rate ≈40 rpm and max effective range ~2,212 m.
Rationale: The MK19 fires 40mm grenades, belt-fed, with those general performance figures.
Option B misstates caliber (7.62 mm is incorrect). Option C is false — it is crew-served. Option
D is false — it fires explosive 40mm rounds (HE, HEDP).

Scout sniper rifle ranges: which pairing of sniper system to approximate maximum effective
range is correct?
A. M40A3 ≈ 1,000 m; M110 SASS ≈ 800 m; M82A3 SASR ≈ 1,800 m
B. M40A3 ≈ 100 m; M110 ≈ 50 m; M82A3 ≈ 200 m
C. All three rifles have identical maximum effective ranges of 500 m.
D. None of these rifles are effective beyond 100 m.
A. M40A3 ≈ 1,000 m; M110 SASS ≈ 800 m; M82A3 SASR ≈ 1,800 m
Rationale: These approximate maximum effective ranges match typical published figures:
M40A3 (≈1,000 m), M110 (~800 m), M82/SASR (long-range anti-material ≈1,800 m). Options
B, C, and D dramatically understate or incorrectly equalize ranges and are therefore incorrect.



Battle Position
Correct answer: A defensive position oriented on the most likely enemy avenue of approach.
Occupied for a short period of time.
Rationale: This describes a temporary, focused defensive posture to engage the enemy along
expected routes. The other options describe more permanent or general defensive arrangements.

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