NR 507 FNP Midterm Exam 2025
Chamberlain – 75 Updated Questions
with 100% Correct Verified Answers
Question 1
Which cells are considered the "first responders" of the innate immune system?
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. T-lymphocytes
d. B-lymphocytes
Correct Answer: b. Neutrophils
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first immune cells to respond to infection or injury, rapidly
migrating to the site to phagocytize pathogens and release antimicrobial substances.
Macrophages arrive later, while T- and B-lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity.
Question 2
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Immune complex deposition
b. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
c. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
d. Antibody-dependent cell destruction
Correct Answer: b. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity involves IgE binding to allergens, triggering mast cell
degranulation and release of histamine, causing symptoms like anaphylaxis or asthma. Other
options describe Types II, III, and IV hypersensitivity.
Question 3
A patient with asthma experiences bronchoconstriction. Which inflammatory mediator is
primarily responsible?
a. Histamine
b. Interleukin-10
c. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
d. Prostaglandin E2
Correct Answer: a. Histamine
Rationale: Histamine, released during mast cell degranulation, causes bronchoconstriction and
,mucus production in asthma. Other mediators play roles but are less primary in acute
bronchoconstriction.
Question 4
Which condition is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: c. Contact dermatitis
Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and delayed, as seen in contact dermatitis
from allergens like poison ivy. Anaphylaxis (Type I), hemolytic anemia (Type II), and lupus
(Type III) involve different mechanisms.
Question 5
A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 450 cells/mm³. What is the most appropriate
management?
a. Delay antiretroviral therapy until CD4 <200
b. Initiate antiretroviral therapy immediately
c. Administer prophylactic antibiotics only
d. Monitor CD4 count monthly
Correct Answer: b. Initiate antiretroviral therapy immediately
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend starting antiretroviral therapy (ART) regardless of
CD4 count to reduce viral load and prevent progression. Delaying ART or only monitoring is not
standard care.
Question 6
Which assessment finding is expected in a patient with urticaria?
a. Eosinophilia
b. Neutropenia
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Lymphocytosis
Correct Answer: a. Eosinophilia
Rationale: Urticaria, a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, is associated with eosinophilia due to
allergic inflammation. Other findings are not typically linked to urticaria.
Question 7
, What is the primary site of red blood cell (RBC) production in adults?
a. Spleen
b. Bone marrow
c. Liver
d. Lymph nodes
Correct Answer: b. Bone marrow
Rationale: In adults, RBC production occurs primarily in the bone marrow, stimulated by
erythropoietin. The spleen and liver are involved in fetal hematopoiesis, and lymph nodes
produce lymphocytes.
Question 8
A patient with chronic kidney disease has anemia. What is the primary cause?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Decreased erythropoietin production
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Bone marrow suppression
Correct Answer: b. Decreased erythropoietin production
Rationale: Chronic kidney disease reduces erythropoietin production by the kidneys, leading to
anemia. Iron or B12 deficiency and marrow suppression may contribute but are not primary.
Question 9
Which type of anemia is characterized by small, pale red blood cells?
a. Microcytic anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Normocytic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer: a. Microcytic anemia
Rationale: Microcytic anemia, such as iron deficiency anemia, features small, pale RBCs due to
impaired hemoglobin synthesis. Macrocytic anemia involves large RBCs, and normocytic
anemia has normal-sized RBCs.
Question 10
What is the primary function of urodilatin in the kidneys?
a. Vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
b. Inhibition of sodium and water reabsorption
c. Stimulation of renin release
d. Increased glomerular filtration rate
Chamberlain – 75 Updated Questions
with 100% Correct Verified Answers
Question 1
Which cells are considered the "first responders" of the innate immune system?
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. T-lymphocytes
d. B-lymphocytes
Correct Answer: b. Neutrophils
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first immune cells to respond to infection or injury, rapidly
migrating to the site to phagocytize pathogens and release antimicrobial substances.
Macrophages arrive later, while T- and B-lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity.
Question 2
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Immune complex deposition
b. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
c. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
d. Antibody-dependent cell destruction
Correct Answer: b. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity involves IgE binding to allergens, triggering mast cell
degranulation and release of histamine, causing symptoms like anaphylaxis or asthma. Other
options describe Types II, III, and IV hypersensitivity.
Question 3
A patient with asthma experiences bronchoconstriction. Which inflammatory mediator is
primarily responsible?
a. Histamine
b. Interleukin-10
c. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
d. Prostaglandin E2
Correct Answer: a. Histamine
Rationale: Histamine, released during mast cell degranulation, causes bronchoconstriction and
,mucus production in asthma. Other mediators play roles but are less primary in acute
bronchoconstriction.
Question 4
Which condition is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: c. Contact dermatitis
Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and delayed, as seen in contact dermatitis
from allergens like poison ivy. Anaphylaxis (Type I), hemolytic anemia (Type II), and lupus
(Type III) involve different mechanisms.
Question 5
A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 450 cells/mm³. What is the most appropriate
management?
a. Delay antiretroviral therapy until CD4 <200
b. Initiate antiretroviral therapy immediately
c. Administer prophylactic antibiotics only
d. Monitor CD4 count monthly
Correct Answer: b. Initiate antiretroviral therapy immediately
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend starting antiretroviral therapy (ART) regardless of
CD4 count to reduce viral load and prevent progression. Delaying ART or only monitoring is not
standard care.
Question 6
Which assessment finding is expected in a patient with urticaria?
a. Eosinophilia
b. Neutropenia
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Lymphocytosis
Correct Answer: a. Eosinophilia
Rationale: Urticaria, a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, is associated with eosinophilia due to
allergic inflammation. Other findings are not typically linked to urticaria.
Question 7
, What is the primary site of red blood cell (RBC) production in adults?
a. Spleen
b. Bone marrow
c. Liver
d. Lymph nodes
Correct Answer: b. Bone marrow
Rationale: In adults, RBC production occurs primarily in the bone marrow, stimulated by
erythropoietin. The spleen and liver are involved in fetal hematopoiesis, and lymph nodes
produce lymphocytes.
Question 8
A patient with chronic kidney disease has anemia. What is the primary cause?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Decreased erythropoietin production
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Bone marrow suppression
Correct Answer: b. Decreased erythropoietin production
Rationale: Chronic kidney disease reduces erythropoietin production by the kidneys, leading to
anemia. Iron or B12 deficiency and marrow suppression may contribute but are not primary.
Question 9
Which type of anemia is characterized by small, pale red blood cells?
a. Microcytic anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Normocytic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer: a. Microcytic anemia
Rationale: Microcytic anemia, such as iron deficiency anemia, features small, pale RBCs due to
impaired hemoglobin synthesis. Macrocytic anemia involves large RBCs, and normocytic
anemia has normal-sized RBCs.
Question 10
What is the primary function of urodilatin in the kidneys?
a. Vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
b. Inhibition of sodium and water reabsorption
c. Stimulation of renin release
d. Increased glomerular filtration rate
