Nr 507, Week - 8 Final Exam( Version -6), Advanced Pathophysiology,Liberty University.

Exam NR507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Newest 2020): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing | ( 100% Verified Answers by Chamberlain Expert) NR 507 Final Exam 1. What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? a. Myelomeningocele 2. What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? a. Glomerular filtration rate 3. Where are Langerhans cells found? a. skin 4. Where in the lung does gas exchange occur? a. Alveolocapillary membrane 5. The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by: a. 5 months 6. When renin is released, it is capable of which action? a. Formation of Angiotensin I 7. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant? a. Epitope 8. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? a. Chlamydia 9. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? a. Reticulocyte count 10. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? a. Epithelial cells 11. Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin? a. Bacteria and fungi 12. An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? a. Atrial Symptom defect (ASD) 13. An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductusarteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom? a. Lack of symptoms 14. What is the function of erythrocytes? a. Tissue oxygenation 15. Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? a. Lipoma, liposarcoma 16. What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)? a. 25% 17. What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx? a. Cillias 18. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? a. Posterior pituitary 19. Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? a. The virus does not circulate in the blood 20. Which renal change is found in older adults? a. Decrease in the number of nephrons 21. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? a. IG A 22. Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? a. Norepinephrine 23. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? a. The antibodies enter circulation by means of active transport 24. The function of the tumor cell marker is to: a. Screen individuals for high risk of cancer 25. Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection? a. Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections 26. Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? a. Vaginal PH becomes more acidic 27. The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term? a. Prevalence 28. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? a. Obesity 29. Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): a. Corpus luteum 30. The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? a. Rickets 31. What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding? a. Tolerance 32. Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of: a. Sodium 33. Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? a. Embolic 34. Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? a. Sensitivity at the tender points and profound fatigue 35. Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? a. Heat exhaustion 36. What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a. Polycistic ovary syndrome 37. Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? a. Insulin 38. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? a. Anterior pituitary 39. What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? a. REduction in the number of low density lipoprotein receptors on cell surfaces 40. Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? a. Modifiable 41. Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction? a. Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation 42. Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? a. fourfold 43. Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? a. LH 44. A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome? a. Klinefelter 45. Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. Auditory hallucinations 46. What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language? a. Aphasia 47. Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons: a. Having common family relations 48. The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain? a. Hypothalamus 49. Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles? a. Calcium 50. Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? a. Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder 51. A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? a. 6 months 52. What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children? a. Periorbitaledema 53. An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? a. Alpha fetoprotein 54. What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases? a. 50% 55. Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact? a. Subluxation 56. The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: a. Sprain 57. Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? a. Fluid reserves are smaller in children 58. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? a. Ovarian 59. Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? a. Potassium 60. What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? a. Joint capsue 61. Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? a. Cortisol 62. The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? a. IG A 63. The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder? a. Night terrors 64. What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? a. Haversian system 65. Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: a. Basal ganglia 66. Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? a. GCT 67. Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)? a. IG A 68. What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture? a. Pathologic 69. An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? a. Intussception 70. In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: a. Physiologic hormonal delays 71. Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? a. Fast conduction velocities 72. Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? a. Alzheimer disease 73. Which hormone triggers uterine contractions? a. Oxytocin 74. How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? a. It raises the metabolic rate 75. Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? a. Leptin 76. Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? a. Hypocalcemia 77. How An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’ chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? a. An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. 78. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? a. Refractory 79. What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? a. 106/58 80. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? a. Cancer cells 81. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? a. Fatigue 82. At birth, which statement is true? a. Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. 84. What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? a. Vit B12 by injection 85. Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever 86. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? a. The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport 87. Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? a. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. 88. During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? a. B lymphocytes proliferate. 89. What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? a. Infectious Disease 90. After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? a .6-14 91. Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? a. Treponemapallidum 92. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? a. IgE 93. Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: a. monocytes 94. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? a. Bone marrow 95. Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? a. IX 96. Which of the following causes condylomataacuminata or genital warts? a. HPV 97. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? a. Adaptation 98. Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? a. Left ventricle 99. Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? a. Urodilatin 100. Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): a. Corpus luteum 101. The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: a. Health history 102. Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesisimperfecta? a. Alkaline phosphatase 103. Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? a. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding 104. What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? a. It becomes thicker 105. The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: a. Obesity and positive family history 106. What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a. Polycystic ovary syndrome 107. Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone? a. Tendon 108. Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? a. Intussusception 108. Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? a. Tardive 109. It is true that myasthenia gravis: a. Causes muscle weakness 110. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? a. Decreases serum calcium. 111. Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates? A amylase 112. What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? a. limbic 113. The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? a. Cortisol 114. Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? a. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears 115. Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease? a. Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon 116. Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? a. Oculomotor CN III 117. What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? a. Sudden increase of LH 118. Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? a. Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles 119. What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? a. Collagen fibers 120. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder? a. Pyloric stenosis 121. The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they: a. Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. 122. The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder? a. Cri du chat 123. Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia? a. Temporal lobe 124. Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? a. An individual on the second day after hip replacement 125. What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? a. hypospadius