NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology – Midterm &
Final Exam (2026/2027) Chamberlain University
Accurate Real Exam 550 Questions And Answers
With Detailed Rationales Each | Currently Testing
And Frequently Tested Versions | Expert Verified
For Guaranteed Pass
1. A cell that undergoes reversible cell injury due to hypoxia initially shows which change?
A) Nuclear fragmentation
B) Cellular swelling
C) Apoptotic bodies
D) Membrane rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia causes ATP depletion, leading to failure of the Na⁺/K⁺ pump and cellular swelling—
the earliest sign of reversible injury.
2. Which type of necrosis is characteristic of ischemic injury in the brain?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Brain tissue lacks structural support, so ischemia leads to enzymatic digestion and liquefactive
necrosis.
3. Metaplasia is best described as:
,A) Increase in cell size
B) Increase in cell number
C) Reversible replacement of one mature cell type with another
D) Disordered cell growth
Answer: C
Rationale: Metaplasia is an adaptive response to chronic irritation, e.g., squamous metaplasia in
smokers’ airways.
4. Which gene is a tumor suppressor gene?
A) RAS
B) MYC
C) TP53
D) HER2
Answer: C
Rationale: TP53 encodes p53, which halts the cell cycle for DNA repair or triggers apoptosis; its loss is a
key step in carcinogenesis.
5. A hallmark of apoptosis is:
A) Cell swelling
B) Cell shrinkage and nuclear fragmentation
C) Inflammatory response
D) Membrane rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation, characterized by cell shrinkage
and apoptotic bodies.
6. Which inflammatory mediator is primarily responsible for vasodilation?
A) Leukotriene B4
2
,B) Histamine
C) Platelet-activating factor
D) Interleukin-1
Answer: B
Rationale: Histamine from mast cells causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.
7. A patient with a history of strep throat develops rheumatic fever. This is an example of:
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Molecular mimicry: antibodies against strep cross-react with cardiac antigens (Type II
cytotoxic reaction).
8. Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type I hypersensitivity?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
Answer: B
Rationale: IgE binds to mast cells and triggers degranulation upon allergen exposure, causing immediate
hypersensitivity.
9. An example of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction is:
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Hemolytic transfusion reaction
3
, D) Anaphylaxis
Answer: B
Rationale: SLE is caused by immune complex deposition (Type III), leading to complement activation and
tissue damage.
10. A deficiency in T cells would most directly impair:
A) Antibody production
B) Cell-mediated immunity
C) Complement activation
D) Neutrophil chemotaxis
Answer: B
Rationale: T cells mediate cellular immunity (e.g., against viruses, fungi, intracellular bacteria) and
regulate B cells.
11. Which is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Malnutrition
Answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion) causes thymic aplasia and T-cell deficiency—a primary
immunodeficiency.
12. In autosomal recessive inheritance, the risk that two carrier parents will have an affected child
is:
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
4
Final Exam (2026/2027) Chamberlain University
Accurate Real Exam 550 Questions And Answers
With Detailed Rationales Each | Currently Testing
And Frequently Tested Versions | Expert Verified
For Guaranteed Pass
1. A cell that undergoes reversible cell injury due to hypoxia initially shows which change?
A) Nuclear fragmentation
B) Cellular swelling
C) Apoptotic bodies
D) Membrane rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia causes ATP depletion, leading to failure of the Na⁺/K⁺ pump and cellular swelling—
the earliest sign of reversible injury.
2. Which type of necrosis is characteristic of ischemic injury in the brain?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Brain tissue lacks structural support, so ischemia leads to enzymatic digestion and liquefactive
necrosis.
3. Metaplasia is best described as:
,A) Increase in cell size
B) Increase in cell number
C) Reversible replacement of one mature cell type with another
D) Disordered cell growth
Answer: C
Rationale: Metaplasia is an adaptive response to chronic irritation, e.g., squamous metaplasia in
smokers’ airways.
4. Which gene is a tumor suppressor gene?
A) RAS
B) MYC
C) TP53
D) HER2
Answer: C
Rationale: TP53 encodes p53, which halts the cell cycle for DNA repair or triggers apoptosis; its loss is a
key step in carcinogenesis.
5. A hallmark of apoptosis is:
A) Cell swelling
B) Cell shrinkage and nuclear fragmentation
C) Inflammatory response
D) Membrane rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation, characterized by cell shrinkage
and apoptotic bodies.
6. Which inflammatory mediator is primarily responsible for vasodilation?
A) Leukotriene B4
2
,B) Histamine
C) Platelet-activating factor
D) Interleukin-1
Answer: B
Rationale: Histamine from mast cells causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.
7. A patient with a history of strep throat develops rheumatic fever. This is an example of:
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B
Rationale: Molecular mimicry: antibodies against strep cross-react with cardiac antigens (Type II
cytotoxic reaction).
8. Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type I hypersensitivity?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
Answer: B
Rationale: IgE binds to mast cells and triggers degranulation upon allergen exposure, causing immediate
hypersensitivity.
9. An example of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction is:
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Hemolytic transfusion reaction
3
, D) Anaphylaxis
Answer: B
Rationale: SLE is caused by immune complex deposition (Type III), leading to complement activation and
tissue damage.
10. A deficiency in T cells would most directly impair:
A) Antibody production
B) Cell-mediated immunity
C) Complement activation
D) Neutrophil chemotaxis
Answer: B
Rationale: T cells mediate cellular immunity (e.g., against viruses, fungi, intracellular bacteria) and
regulate B cells.
11. Which is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Malnutrition
Answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion) causes thymic aplasia and T-cell deficiency—a primary
immunodeficiency.
12. In autosomal recessive inheritance, the risk that two carrier parents will have an affected child
is:
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
4
