nurs 6203 advanced phamacology midterm exam latest
,NURS6203 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
NURS 6203 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
MIDTERM – 2026 EXAM PACK (A+
VERIFIED, 100% EXAM- ALIGNED Q&A)
nurs 6203 advanced phamacology midterm exam latest
,1 The anticoagulant medicine that acts as a vitamin K antagonist is:
Correct Answer: Coumadin (warfarin)
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing the
synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It is
therefore classified as a vitamin K antagonist and requires monitoring of the
INR.
2. What is a serious side effect of ibuprofen in the older adult client?
Correct Answer: Impairment of renal function
Rationale: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which
can reduce renal blood flow. Older adults are particularly susceptible to
NSAID-associated acute kidney injury, especially when renal function is
already compromised or when dehydration is present.
3. A NP is conducting an assessment of a client who has recently had
several changes made to her medication regimen. What assessment
question most directly addresses the safety implications of the client's
medication regimen?
Correct Answer: “Do you take any herbal supplements or alternative
medications?”
Rationale: Herbal products and alternative medications can produce clinically
significant drug interactions. Asking about these products helps identify
additional pharmacologic agents that may increase toxicity, decrease
therapeutic effectiveness, or alter medication metabolism.
, 4. Which can elevate theophylline levels?
Correct Answer: Concomitant treatment with cimetidine (Tagamet)
Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes responsible
for theophylline metabolism. Reduced metabolism can increase serum
theophylline concentrations and increase the risk of toxicity.
5. Which of the following can block the action of heparin?
Correct Answer: Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for unfractionated
heparin. It binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant activity, making it
useful when significant heparin-associated bleeding or excessive
anticoagulation occurs.
6. A possible side effect from the use of nifedipine (Procardia XL) is:
Correct Answer: Edema of the ankles and headaches
Rationale: Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker that
causes peripheral vasodilation. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure can
produce peripheral edema, while vasodilation can also cause headache and
flushing.
7. Which of the following is a potential adverse side effect of autonomic-
anticholinergic agents?
Correct Answer: Reduced GI motility
,NURS6203 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
NURS 6203 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
MIDTERM – 2026 EXAM PACK (A+
VERIFIED, 100% EXAM- ALIGNED Q&A)
nurs 6203 advanced phamacology midterm exam latest
,1 The anticoagulant medicine that acts as a vitamin K antagonist is:
Correct Answer: Coumadin (warfarin)
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing the
synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It is
therefore classified as a vitamin K antagonist and requires monitoring of the
INR.
2. What is a serious side effect of ibuprofen in the older adult client?
Correct Answer: Impairment of renal function
Rationale: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which
can reduce renal blood flow. Older adults are particularly susceptible to
NSAID-associated acute kidney injury, especially when renal function is
already compromised or when dehydration is present.
3. A NP is conducting an assessment of a client who has recently had
several changes made to her medication regimen. What assessment
question most directly addresses the safety implications of the client's
medication regimen?
Correct Answer: “Do you take any herbal supplements or alternative
medications?”
Rationale: Herbal products and alternative medications can produce clinically
significant drug interactions. Asking about these products helps identify
additional pharmacologic agents that may increase toxicity, decrease
therapeutic effectiveness, or alter medication metabolism.
, 4. Which can elevate theophylline levels?
Correct Answer: Concomitant treatment with cimetidine (Tagamet)
Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes responsible
for theophylline metabolism. Reduced metabolism can increase serum
theophylline concentrations and increase the risk of toxicity.
5. Which of the following can block the action of heparin?
Correct Answer: Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for unfractionated
heparin. It binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant activity, making it
useful when significant heparin-associated bleeding or excessive
anticoagulation occurs.
6. A possible side effect from the use of nifedipine (Procardia XL) is:
Correct Answer: Edema of the ankles and headaches
Rationale: Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker that
causes peripheral vasodilation. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure can
produce peripheral edema, while vasodilation can also cause headache and
flushing.
7. Which of the following is a potential adverse side effect of autonomic-
anticholinergic agents?
Correct Answer: Reduced GI motility
