Exam (Latest Update)
Questions and Verified Answers |
100% Correct | Grade A+
1. A patient is in cardiac arrest. The cardiac monitor
shows asystole. In addition to providing continuous high-
quality CPR, what is the other priority intervention for
this patient?
Correct Answer: Administering epinephrine as early as
possible
Rationale:
Asystole is a nonshockable cardiac-arrest rhythm.
Defibrillation is not indicated. The priorities are immediate
high-quality CPR, rapid identification and treatment of
reversible causes, and administration of epinephrine as early
as possible, followed by repeat dosing according to the
resuscitation protocol.
,2. A patient has experienced return of spontaneous
circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest. The healthcare
team is conducting a secondary assessment to determine
the possible cause of the patient's cardiac arrest. Before
the arrest, the patient exhibited jugular venous distension,
cyanosis, apnea, and hyperresonance on percussion. The
patient was also difficult to ventilate during the response.
The team would most likely suspect which condition as the
cause?
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Rationale:
The combination of jugular venous distension, cyanosis,
hyperresonance, apnea, and difficulty with ventilation is
strongly suggestive of tension pneumothorax. Increasing
intrathoracic pressure compresses the affected lung and major
vessels, decreases venous return, and can rapidly cause
obstructive shock and cardiac arrest. Immediate recognition
and treatment are essential.
3. A patient with suspected stroke arrives at the emergency
department. The patient is diagnosed with acute ischemic
stroke and is a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy. To
,achieve the best outcomes, this therapy should be initiated
within what time frame?
Correct Answer: Within 1 hour of patient's arrival.
Rationale:
Fibrinolytic therapy for eligible acute ischemic stroke patients
is highly time-sensitive. Rapid treatment improves the
likelihood of restoring cerebral perfusion before irreversible
neuronal injury develops. The specified target emphasizes the
importance of initiating therapy promptly after arrival and
completion of the necessary evaluation.
4. A patient in the telemetry unit is receiving continuous
cardiac monitoring. The patient has a history of
myocardial infarction. The patient's ECG rhythm strip is
shown in the following figure. The provider interprets this
strip as indicating which arrhythmia?
Correct Answer: Third-degree AV block
Rationale:
Third-degree AV block, also called complete heart block,
occurs when atrial impulses fail to conduct to the ventricles.
The atria and ventricles depolarize independently, producing
, AV dissociation. Myocardial infarction can damage the
conduction system and contribute to the development of
complete heart block.
5. A 28-year-old pregnant patient who resides in
transitional housing presents to the emergency department
with complaints of feeling feverish and very faint. The
patient tells the emergency nurse that she does not know
when she became pregnant. Upon palpation, the fundus is
not at or above the umbilicus. The patient's condition
quickly deteriorates and she goes into cardiac arrest. If
available and able to be used without impeding or delaying
the resuscitation effort, what diagnostic tool could be used
to guide decision-making in the care of this patient?
Correct Answer: Point-of-care ultrasound
Rationale:
Point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) can rapidly provide
information about pregnancy, uterine size, fetal status, cardiac
activity, and other potentially important findings during
maternal cardiac arrest. It may help guide management when
pregnancy-related factors are uncertain. However, ultrasound