ATI PN Fundamentals Predictor Exam Form B
Questions and Answers | Latest
This comprehensive Practical Nursing Fundamentals Predictor examination review contains 75 multiple-choice
questions aligned with the 2026-2027 ATI Testing PN Fundamentals curriculum. The exam is organized into seven
sections covering safe and effective care environment, health promotion and maintenance, psychosocial integrity,
basic care and comfort, pharmacological and parenteral therapies, reduction of risk potential, and physiological
adaptation. Each question includes a detailed rationale explaining the correct answer and why distractors are
incorrect, emphasizing ATI priority-setting frameworks, clinical judgment, safety, and evidence-based practice at the
practical nursing level. This Form B provides a distinct question set from Form A for additional practice and
assessment.
Section 1: Safe, Effective Care Environment (Management of Care, Legal/Ethical
Issues, Delegation, & Safety/Infection Control)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client signs the surgical
consent form but then tells the practical nurse (PN), "I'm not really sure what the doctor is going to do."
What is the PN's MOST appropriate action?
A. Reassure the client that the surgeon will explain everything in the morning
B. Notify the registered nurse (RN) and document the client's statement so consent can be
re-evaluated [CORRECT]
C. Explain the surgical procedure to the client using simple language
D. Cancel the surgery because the client's signature is invalid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PN should notify the RN so that the provider can be contacted and informed consent can be
re-validated, because valid consent requires that the client understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and
alternatives. Reassuring without action does not address the lack of understanding. The PN should not explain the
procedure because that is the provider's responsibility. Canceling surgery is beyond the PN's scope. The nurse's role
in informed consent is to witness the signature and verify understanding, not to provide the medical explanation,
which must come from the provider performing the procedure.
,Q2: An RN is planning care for a group of clients and must delegate tasks. Which client care task is MOST
appropriate to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a new admission's vital signs
B. Teaching a client about a low-sodium diet
C. Ambulating a stable client who had an uneventful knee replacement 3 days ago [CORRECT]
D. Evaluating a client's response to a new pain medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ambulating a stable postoperative client is within the UAP scope of practice because it is a routine,
predictable task with a stable client. Assessments (initial assessment, vital signs of an unstable client, evaluating
medication response) and teaching require licensed nursing scope. Teaching requires RN or PN scope with
appropriate knowledge. The Five Rights of Delegation must be applied: right task, right circumstances, right person,
right direction, and right supervision. UAP can ambulate stable clients, perform activities of daily living, take routine
vital signs on stable clients, and assist with feeding, but cannot perform assessments, teaching, or care requiring
nursing judgment.
Q3: A client is admitted with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of isolation precautions should the
nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions only
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions in a negative-pressure room with an N95 respirator [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions in a negative-pressure room with HEPA filtration
and N95 respirator masks because the bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) are transmitted via small airborne
droplet nuclei that can remain suspended for long periods and travel long distances. Contact precautions are for
direct contact transmission (C. difficile, MRSA). Droplet precautions are for large droplets (influenza,
meningococcal). Standard precautions alone are insufficient. The nurse should also wear an N95 mask, place the
client in a negative-pressure room with the door closed, and ensure proper ventilation with at least 6-12 air changes
per hour, with the client wearing a surgical mask during transport if transport is necessary.
,Q4: A nurse observes a UAP preparing to perform mouth care for a client on contact precautions for
Clostridioides difficile infection. Which action by the UAP requires the nurse to intervene?
A. The UAP wears a gown and gloves
B. The UAP uses soap and water for hand hygiene after care
C. The UAP uses an alcohol-based hand sanitizer after removing gloves [CORRECT]
D. The UAP keeps the client's door closed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand sanitizers do not kill C. difficile spores, so the UAP must use soap and water for hand
hygiene after caring for a client with C. difficile. Wearing gown and gloves is correct contact precaution practice.
Using soap and water is correct. Keeping the door closed is appropriate. The nurse should intervene when the UAP
uses only alcohol-based sanitizer because this is ineffective against spores. C. difficile requires contact precautions
with private room, gown and gloves for all entries, dedicated equipment, and soap and water for hand hygiene, with
environmental cleaning using bleach-based disinfectants.
Q5: A client is receiving continuous wrist restraints after pulling out a urinary catheter twice. How often
must the PN assess the client's circulation, skin integrity, and restraint placement?
A. Every 15 minutes
B. Every 30 minutes [CORRECT]
C. Every hour
D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse must assess circulation, skin integrity, and restraint placement every 30 minutes for clients with
continuous wrist restraints to prevent skin breakdown, nerve damage, and impaired circulation. Every 15 minutes is
more frequent than required. Every hour is too infrequent. Every 2 hours is the maximum for routine repositioning but
not sufficient for restraint assessment. Restraints require a provider order (renewed every 24 hours), the least
restrictive type, the shortest duration, removal for ROM every 2 hours, and documentation of the behavior
necessitating restraints and alternative measures attempted before restraint use.
Q6: A nurse is caring for a client who has a documented do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client
experiences cardiac arrest. What is the MOST appropriate action?
A. Initiate CPR immediately because the DNR is not legal in the hospital
B. Honor the DNR order and do not initiate CPR; notify the provider [CORRECT]
C. Call a code but stop resuscitation once the provider arrives
D. Ask the family to decide before initiating CPR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse must honor the DNR order and not initiate CPR, then notify the provider, because the DNR is a
legal document reflecting the client's autonomy and wishes. The DNR is legal in the hospital. Calling a code and
stopping later violates the client's wishes. Waiting for family decision delays care and violates the DNR. The nurse
should ensure the DNR is documented, posted, and communicated to all care providers, and should provide comfort
measures and support the family through the dying process if applicable.
, Q7: Which of the following clients is at GREATEST risk for developing a pressure injury?
A. A 35-year-old client who ambulates independently
B. A 78-year-old client who is incontinent and bed-bound [CORRECT]
C. A 50-year-old client with a fractured leg in a cast
D. A 25-year-old postoperative client who ambulates with assistance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 78-year-old client who is incontinent and bed-bound has the highest risk because advanced age,
immobility, and incontinence are three major risk factors for pressure injury development according to the Braden
Scale. Independent ambulation, cast immobilization (without other risk factors), and assisted ambulation all carry
lower risk. Risk factors include immobility, incontinence, poor nutrition, altered sensory perception, decreased mental
status, and compromised circulation. The nurse should implement pressure injury prevention including repositioning
every 2 hours, skin assessment, pressure-relieving surfaces, and management of incontinence with moisture barrier
creams.
Q8: A client is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Within 15 minutes, the client develops fever, chills,
and low back pain. What is the nurse's PRIORITY action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate and notify the provider
B. Stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the RN and provider
[CORRECT]
C. Increase the flow rate to complete the transfusion faster
D. Administer acetaminophen for the fever
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority is to stop the transfusion immediately, maintain IV access with normal saline at a new IV site,
and notify the RN and provider, because the client is experiencing an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (a medical
emergency). Slowing the rate continues exposure to the offending blood. Increasing the rate is dangerous.
Acetaminophen does not address the hemolytic reaction. The nurse should monitor vital signs every 5-15 minutes,
maintain IV access with 0.9% NaCl (never dextrose solutions), preserve the blood bag and tubing for the blood bank,
and obtain a post-transfusion blood sample and urine sample for analysis of hemolysis.
Questions and Answers | Latest
This comprehensive Practical Nursing Fundamentals Predictor examination review contains 75 multiple-choice
questions aligned with the 2026-2027 ATI Testing PN Fundamentals curriculum. The exam is organized into seven
sections covering safe and effective care environment, health promotion and maintenance, psychosocial integrity,
basic care and comfort, pharmacological and parenteral therapies, reduction of risk potential, and physiological
adaptation. Each question includes a detailed rationale explaining the correct answer and why distractors are
incorrect, emphasizing ATI priority-setting frameworks, clinical judgment, safety, and evidence-based practice at the
practical nursing level. This Form B provides a distinct question set from Form A for additional practice and
assessment.
Section 1: Safe, Effective Care Environment (Management of Care, Legal/Ethical
Issues, Delegation, & Safety/Infection Control)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client signs the surgical
consent form but then tells the practical nurse (PN), "I'm not really sure what the doctor is going to do."
What is the PN's MOST appropriate action?
A. Reassure the client that the surgeon will explain everything in the morning
B. Notify the registered nurse (RN) and document the client's statement so consent can be
re-evaluated [CORRECT]
C. Explain the surgical procedure to the client using simple language
D. Cancel the surgery because the client's signature is invalid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PN should notify the RN so that the provider can be contacted and informed consent can be
re-validated, because valid consent requires that the client understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and
alternatives. Reassuring without action does not address the lack of understanding. The PN should not explain the
procedure because that is the provider's responsibility. Canceling surgery is beyond the PN's scope. The nurse's role
in informed consent is to witness the signature and verify understanding, not to provide the medical explanation,
which must come from the provider performing the procedure.
,Q2: An RN is planning care for a group of clients and must delegate tasks. Which client care task is MOST
appropriate to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a new admission's vital signs
B. Teaching a client about a low-sodium diet
C. Ambulating a stable client who had an uneventful knee replacement 3 days ago [CORRECT]
D. Evaluating a client's response to a new pain medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ambulating a stable postoperative client is within the UAP scope of practice because it is a routine,
predictable task with a stable client. Assessments (initial assessment, vital signs of an unstable client, evaluating
medication response) and teaching require licensed nursing scope. Teaching requires RN or PN scope with
appropriate knowledge. The Five Rights of Delegation must be applied: right task, right circumstances, right person,
right direction, and right supervision. UAP can ambulate stable clients, perform activities of daily living, take routine
vital signs on stable clients, and assist with feeding, but cannot perform assessments, teaching, or care requiring
nursing judgment.
Q3: A client is admitted with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of isolation precautions should the
nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions only
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions in a negative-pressure room with an N95 respirator [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions in a negative-pressure room with HEPA filtration
and N95 respirator masks because the bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) are transmitted via small airborne
droplet nuclei that can remain suspended for long periods and travel long distances. Contact precautions are for
direct contact transmission (C. difficile, MRSA). Droplet precautions are for large droplets (influenza,
meningococcal). Standard precautions alone are insufficient. The nurse should also wear an N95 mask, place the
client in a negative-pressure room with the door closed, and ensure proper ventilation with at least 6-12 air changes
per hour, with the client wearing a surgical mask during transport if transport is necessary.
,Q4: A nurse observes a UAP preparing to perform mouth care for a client on contact precautions for
Clostridioides difficile infection. Which action by the UAP requires the nurse to intervene?
A. The UAP wears a gown and gloves
B. The UAP uses soap and water for hand hygiene after care
C. The UAP uses an alcohol-based hand sanitizer after removing gloves [CORRECT]
D. The UAP keeps the client's door closed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand sanitizers do not kill C. difficile spores, so the UAP must use soap and water for hand
hygiene after caring for a client with C. difficile. Wearing gown and gloves is correct contact precaution practice.
Using soap and water is correct. Keeping the door closed is appropriate. The nurse should intervene when the UAP
uses only alcohol-based sanitizer because this is ineffective against spores. C. difficile requires contact precautions
with private room, gown and gloves for all entries, dedicated equipment, and soap and water for hand hygiene, with
environmental cleaning using bleach-based disinfectants.
Q5: A client is receiving continuous wrist restraints after pulling out a urinary catheter twice. How often
must the PN assess the client's circulation, skin integrity, and restraint placement?
A. Every 15 minutes
B. Every 30 minutes [CORRECT]
C. Every hour
D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse must assess circulation, skin integrity, and restraint placement every 30 minutes for clients with
continuous wrist restraints to prevent skin breakdown, nerve damage, and impaired circulation. Every 15 minutes is
more frequent than required. Every hour is too infrequent. Every 2 hours is the maximum for routine repositioning but
not sufficient for restraint assessment. Restraints require a provider order (renewed every 24 hours), the least
restrictive type, the shortest duration, removal for ROM every 2 hours, and documentation of the behavior
necessitating restraints and alternative measures attempted before restraint use.
Q6: A nurse is caring for a client who has a documented do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client
experiences cardiac arrest. What is the MOST appropriate action?
A. Initiate CPR immediately because the DNR is not legal in the hospital
B. Honor the DNR order and do not initiate CPR; notify the provider [CORRECT]
C. Call a code but stop resuscitation once the provider arrives
D. Ask the family to decide before initiating CPR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse must honor the DNR order and not initiate CPR, then notify the provider, because the DNR is a
legal document reflecting the client's autonomy and wishes. The DNR is legal in the hospital. Calling a code and
stopping later violates the client's wishes. Waiting for family decision delays care and violates the DNR. The nurse
should ensure the DNR is documented, posted, and communicated to all care providers, and should provide comfort
measures and support the family through the dying process if applicable.
, Q7: Which of the following clients is at GREATEST risk for developing a pressure injury?
A. A 35-year-old client who ambulates independently
B. A 78-year-old client who is incontinent and bed-bound [CORRECT]
C. A 50-year-old client with a fractured leg in a cast
D. A 25-year-old postoperative client who ambulates with assistance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 78-year-old client who is incontinent and bed-bound has the highest risk because advanced age,
immobility, and incontinence are three major risk factors for pressure injury development according to the Braden
Scale. Independent ambulation, cast immobilization (without other risk factors), and assisted ambulation all carry
lower risk. Risk factors include immobility, incontinence, poor nutrition, altered sensory perception, decreased mental
status, and compromised circulation. The nurse should implement pressure injury prevention including repositioning
every 2 hours, skin assessment, pressure-relieving surfaces, and management of incontinence with moisture barrier
creams.
Q8: A client is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Within 15 minutes, the client develops fever, chills,
and low back pain. What is the nurse's PRIORITY action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate and notify the provider
B. Stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the RN and provider
[CORRECT]
C. Increase the flow rate to complete the transfusion faster
D. Administer acetaminophen for the fever
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The priority is to stop the transfusion immediately, maintain IV access with normal saline at a new IV site,
and notify the RN and provider, because the client is experiencing an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (a medical
emergency). Slowing the rate continues exposure to the offending blood. Increasing the rate is dangerous.
Acetaminophen does not address the hemolytic reaction. The nurse should monitor vital signs every 5-15 minutes,
maintain IV access with 0.9% NaCl (never dextrose solutions), preserve the blood bag and tubing for the blood bank,
and obtain a post-transfusion blood sample and urine sample for analysis of hemolysis.
