NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam Advanced
Pathophysiology Practice Questions & Answers
Chamberlain College of Nursing | Latest Update 2026
QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALE
SECTION 1: ONCOLOGY & CANCER BIOLOGY (Questions 1-12)
QUESTION 1:
What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
A) Herpes simplex virus type 2
B) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Epstein-Barr virus
Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16 and 18, is the
major viral cause of cervical cancer. HPV E6 and E7 oncoproteins inactivate tumor
suppressor genes p53 and Rb, leading to uncontrolled cellular proliferation. HIV
increases risk but is not directly oncogenic for cervical cancer.
QUESTION 2:
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissues?
A) Blood vessels
B) Epithelial cells
C) Connective tissue
D) Glandular tissue
Rationale: Carcinomas originate from epithelial cells (skin, mucous membranes,
glandular epithelium). Sarcomas arise from connective tissue (bone, muscle,
cartilage), leukemias from blood-forming cells, and lymphomas from lymphatic
tissue.
,QUESTION 3:
A patient with a malignant tumor of the breast is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma.
Which tissue type is the origin of this cancer?
A) Connective tissue
B) Glandular epithelial tissue
C) Squamous epithelium
D) Neural tissue
Rationale: Adenocarcinomas arise from glandular epithelial tissue. Breast, colon,
lung, and prostate cancers are common adenocarcinomas. Squamous cell
carcinomas arise from squamous epithelium.
QUESTION 4:
Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant (cancerous) cells?
A) Well-differentiated cells
B) Anaplasia and loss of differentiation
C) Encapsulated growth
D) Slow growth rate
Rationale: Malignant cells show anaplasia (loss of differentiation), pleomorphism
(variation in size/shape), and rapid, invasive growth. Benign tumors are well-
differentiated, encapsulated, and grow slowly.
QUESTION 5:
Which statement is TRUE regarding pain and cancer?
A) Pain is primarily a result of disease caused by the tumor
B) Pain indicates the metastasis of cancer
C) Pain is usually the initial cause of death
D) Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer
Rationale: Cancer pain is most commonly associated with advanced (late-stage)
disease. It results from tumor invasion, compression of nerves or organs, and
metastatic spread. Pain is not typically an initial symptom or cause of death.
,QUESTION 6:
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
A) Infectivity
B) Toxigenicity
C) Pathogenicity
D) Virulence
Rationale: Virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity, including the ability to
invade and multiply in the host. Infectivity is the ability to establish infection.
Toxigenicity is the ability to produce toxins. Pathogenicity is the ability to cause
disease.
QUESTION 7:
Which of the following best describes the TNM staging system in cancer?
A) Tumor size, nodal involvement, metastasis
B) Tumor necrosis, node size, mitotic rate
C) Tumor grade, nuclear atypia, mitotic index
D) Tumor location, node count, metastasis
Rationale: The TNM staging system evaluates Tumor size (T), lymph Node
involvement (N), and Metastasis (M). This system helps determine prognosis and
treatment planning.
QUESTION 8:
A patient is diagnosed with a tumor that originates from connective tissue. This
type of tumor is classified as:
A) Carcinoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Leukemia
Rationale: Sarcomas arise from connective tissues including bone, cartilage,
muscle, and fat. Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissues. Lymphomas arise from
lymphoid tissue, and leukemias from blood-forming cells.
, QUESTION 9:
Which of the following oncogenes is commonly associated with breast cancer?
A) HER2/neu (ERBB2)
B) KRAS
C) BCR-ABL
D) MYC
Rationale: HER2/neu (ERBB2) is amplified in approximately 20-25% of breast
cancers and is associated with aggressive disease. KRAS is associated with
colorectal and pancreatic cancer. BCR-ABL is associated with CML.
QUESTION 10:
The p53 tumor suppressor gene is often called the "guardian of the genome."
Which of the following is TRUE about p53?
A) It promotes cell division
B) It induces apoptosis in cells with DNA damage
C) It is always mutated in cancer
D) It inhibits DNA repair
Rationale: p53 functions as a tumor suppressor by inducing cell cycle arrest and
apoptosis in cells with DNA damage. It is mutated in over 50% of cancers, but not
all. Loss of p53 function allows DNA damage to accumulate.
QUESTION 11:
A patient with chronic hepatitis B infection is at increased risk for which type of
cancer?
A) Lung cancer
B) Hepatocellular carcinoma
C) Pancreatic cancer
D) Gastric cancer
Rationale: Chronic hepatitis B and C infections are major risk factors for
hepatocellular carcinoma. The virus integrates into the host genome and promotes
oncogenesis through chronic inflammation and direct viral effects.
Pathophysiology Practice Questions & Answers
Chamberlain College of Nursing | Latest Update 2026
QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALE
SECTION 1: ONCOLOGY & CANCER BIOLOGY (Questions 1-12)
QUESTION 1:
What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
A) Herpes simplex virus type 2
B) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
D) Epstein-Barr virus
Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16 and 18, is the
major viral cause of cervical cancer. HPV E6 and E7 oncoproteins inactivate tumor
suppressor genes p53 and Rb, leading to uncontrolled cellular proliferation. HIV
increases risk but is not directly oncogenic for cervical cancer.
QUESTION 2:
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissues?
A) Blood vessels
B) Epithelial cells
C) Connective tissue
D) Glandular tissue
Rationale: Carcinomas originate from epithelial cells (skin, mucous membranes,
glandular epithelium). Sarcomas arise from connective tissue (bone, muscle,
cartilage), leukemias from blood-forming cells, and lymphomas from lymphatic
tissue.
,QUESTION 3:
A patient with a malignant tumor of the breast is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma.
Which tissue type is the origin of this cancer?
A) Connective tissue
B) Glandular epithelial tissue
C) Squamous epithelium
D) Neural tissue
Rationale: Adenocarcinomas arise from glandular epithelial tissue. Breast, colon,
lung, and prostate cancers are common adenocarcinomas. Squamous cell
carcinomas arise from squamous epithelium.
QUESTION 4:
Which of the following is a characteristic of malignant (cancerous) cells?
A) Well-differentiated cells
B) Anaplasia and loss of differentiation
C) Encapsulated growth
D) Slow growth rate
Rationale: Malignant cells show anaplasia (loss of differentiation), pleomorphism
(variation in size/shape), and rapid, invasive growth. Benign tumors are well-
differentiated, encapsulated, and grow slowly.
QUESTION 5:
Which statement is TRUE regarding pain and cancer?
A) Pain is primarily a result of disease caused by the tumor
B) Pain indicates the metastasis of cancer
C) Pain is usually the initial cause of death
D) Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer
Rationale: Cancer pain is most commonly associated with advanced (late-stage)
disease. It results from tumor invasion, compression of nerves or organs, and
metastatic spread. Pain is not typically an initial symptom or cause of death.
,QUESTION 6:
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
A) Infectivity
B) Toxigenicity
C) Pathogenicity
D) Virulence
Rationale: Virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity, including the ability to
invade and multiply in the host. Infectivity is the ability to establish infection.
Toxigenicity is the ability to produce toxins. Pathogenicity is the ability to cause
disease.
QUESTION 7:
Which of the following best describes the TNM staging system in cancer?
A) Tumor size, nodal involvement, metastasis
B) Tumor necrosis, node size, mitotic rate
C) Tumor grade, nuclear atypia, mitotic index
D) Tumor location, node count, metastasis
Rationale: The TNM staging system evaluates Tumor size (T), lymph Node
involvement (N), and Metastasis (M). This system helps determine prognosis and
treatment planning.
QUESTION 8:
A patient is diagnosed with a tumor that originates from connective tissue. This
type of tumor is classified as:
A) Carcinoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Leukemia
Rationale: Sarcomas arise from connective tissues including bone, cartilage,
muscle, and fat. Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissues. Lymphomas arise from
lymphoid tissue, and leukemias from blood-forming cells.
, QUESTION 9:
Which of the following oncogenes is commonly associated with breast cancer?
A) HER2/neu (ERBB2)
B) KRAS
C) BCR-ABL
D) MYC
Rationale: HER2/neu (ERBB2) is amplified in approximately 20-25% of breast
cancers and is associated with aggressive disease. KRAS is associated with
colorectal and pancreatic cancer. BCR-ABL is associated with CML.
QUESTION 10:
The p53 tumor suppressor gene is often called the "guardian of the genome."
Which of the following is TRUE about p53?
A) It promotes cell division
B) It induces apoptosis in cells with DNA damage
C) It is always mutated in cancer
D) It inhibits DNA repair
Rationale: p53 functions as a tumor suppressor by inducing cell cycle arrest and
apoptosis in cells with DNA damage. It is mutated in over 50% of cancers, but not
all. Loss of p53 function allows DNA damage to accumulate.
QUESTION 11:
A patient with chronic hepatitis B infection is at increased risk for which type of
cancer?
A) Lung cancer
B) Hepatocellular carcinoma
C) Pancreatic cancer
D) Gastric cancer
Rationale: Chronic hepatitis B and C infections are major risk factors for
hepatocellular carcinoma. The virus integrates into the host genome and promotes
oncogenesis through chronic inflammation and direct viral effects.
