ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2026 (NGN) Practice
Questions & Correct Answers | Verified Rationales | Latest
Edition
Question 1
A nurse assesses a client with heart failure who reports increasing shortness of breath
while lying flat. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Weight gain of 1 lb (0.45 kg) overnight B. Bilateral ankle edema C. Oxygen saturation
of 86% on room air D. Fatigue after walking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia requiring
immediate oxygen therapy and further assessment.
Question 2
A client receiving IV heparin develops bleeding gums. Which laboratory value should the
nurse review first?
A. INR B. aPTT C. Platelet count D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT monitors the therapeutic effect of unfractionated heparin and helps
determine if the dosage is excessive.
Question 3
Which finding indicates effective teaching about insulin administration?
A. Inject into the same site every day. B. Massage the injection site. C. Rotate injection
sites within the same anatomical area. D. Shake insulin vigorously.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rotating sites within one anatomical area promotes consistent absorption while
preventing lipodystrophy.
Question 4
A postoperative client suddenly reports chest pain and dyspnea. Which action should the
nurse take first?
, A. Notify the provider B. Elevate the client’s legs C. Administer oxygen D. Obtain a
chest x-ray
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Supporting airway and oxygenation is the priority when pulmonary embolism is
suspected.
Question 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with peaked T waves?
A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia commonly produces peaked T waves and can lead to life-
threatening dysrhythmias.
Question 6
A client taking warfarin asks about foods to avoid. Which response is appropriate?
A. “Increase spinach intake.” B. “Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods.”
C. “Avoid all dairy products.” D. “Eat grapefruit daily.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain stable anticoagulation.
Question 7
Which assessment finding is expected in dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse B. Moist mucous membranes C. Tachycardia D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia occurs as a compensatory response to decreased circulating
volume.
Question 8
A nurse prepares to administer digoxin. Which finding requires withholding the medication?
A. Heart rate 54/min B. Respiratory rate 18/min C. Blood pressure 128/72 mm Hg D.
Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: Digoxin should generally be withheld when the apical pulse is below 60/min.
Question 9
Which client is at greatest risk for pressure injuries?
A. Ambulatory client with hypertension B. Client on bed rest with poor nutrition C.
Client with seasonal allergies D. Client with migraine headaches
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immobility and malnutrition significantly increase pressure injury risk.
Question 10
Which intervention best prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections?
A. Routine irrigation B. Daily catheter changes C. Maintain a closed drainage system D.
Disconnect tubing frequently
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a closed drainage system reduces bacterial contamination.
Question 11
A client with COPD should receive oxygen therapy cautiously because of the risk of:
A. Hyperglycemia B. Carbon dioxide retention C. Bradycardia D. Hypothermia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Excess oxygen may worsen CO₂ retention in some clients with chronic COPD.
Question 12
Which food is highest in potassium?
A. White rice B. Banana C. Bread D. Chicken breast
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium.
Question 13
Which symptom suggests hypoglycemia?
A. Dry skin B. Increased thirst C. Diaphoresis D. Fruity breath
Correct Answer: C
Questions & Correct Answers | Verified Rationales | Latest
Edition
Question 1
A nurse assesses a client with heart failure who reports increasing shortness of breath
while lying flat. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Weight gain of 1 lb (0.45 kg) overnight B. Bilateral ankle edema C. Oxygen saturation
of 86% on room air D. Fatigue after walking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia requiring
immediate oxygen therapy and further assessment.
Question 2
A client receiving IV heparin develops bleeding gums. Which laboratory value should the
nurse review first?
A. INR B. aPTT C. Platelet count D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT monitors the therapeutic effect of unfractionated heparin and helps
determine if the dosage is excessive.
Question 3
Which finding indicates effective teaching about insulin administration?
A. Inject into the same site every day. B. Massage the injection site. C. Rotate injection
sites within the same anatomical area. D. Shake insulin vigorously.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rotating sites within one anatomical area promotes consistent absorption while
preventing lipodystrophy.
Question 4
A postoperative client suddenly reports chest pain and dyspnea. Which action should the
nurse take first?
, A. Notify the provider B. Elevate the client’s legs C. Administer oxygen D. Obtain a
chest x-ray
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Supporting airway and oxygenation is the priority when pulmonary embolism is
suspected.
Question 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with peaked T waves?
A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia commonly produces peaked T waves and can lead to life-
threatening dysrhythmias.
Question 6
A client taking warfarin asks about foods to avoid. Which response is appropriate?
A. “Increase spinach intake.” B. “Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods.”
C. “Avoid all dairy products.” D. “Eat grapefruit daily.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain stable anticoagulation.
Question 7
Which assessment finding is expected in dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse B. Moist mucous membranes C. Tachycardia D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia occurs as a compensatory response to decreased circulating
volume.
Question 8
A nurse prepares to administer digoxin. Which finding requires withholding the medication?
A. Heart rate 54/min B. Respiratory rate 18/min C. Blood pressure 128/72 mm Hg D.
Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: Digoxin should generally be withheld when the apical pulse is below 60/min.
Question 9
Which client is at greatest risk for pressure injuries?
A. Ambulatory client with hypertension B. Client on bed rest with poor nutrition C.
Client with seasonal allergies D. Client with migraine headaches
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immobility and malnutrition significantly increase pressure injury risk.
Question 10
Which intervention best prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections?
A. Routine irrigation B. Daily catheter changes C. Maintain a closed drainage system D.
Disconnect tubing frequently
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a closed drainage system reduces bacterial contamination.
Question 11
A client with COPD should receive oxygen therapy cautiously because of the risk of:
A. Hyperglycemia B. Carbon dioxide retention C. Bradycardia D. Hypothermia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Excess oxygen may worsen CO₂ retention in some clients with chronic COPD.
Question 12
Which food is highest in potassium?
A. White rice B. Banana C. Bread D. Chicken breast
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium.
Question 13
Which symptom suggests hypoglycemia?
A. Dry skin B. Increased thirst C. Diaphoresis D. Fruity breath
Correct Answer: C
