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PNB 2265 Exam 4 Questions with Correct Answers | Sure To pass | already Graded A+

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Q1: What is infectious mononucleosis? Viral disease, results in increased production of monocytes and lymphocytes (stained purple, bilobed nucleus with rough borders, latches on/sticks to normal RBCs and creates net across multiple) Q2: What is polycythemia? Over production of RBCs, result of bone marrow cancer Q3: What is leukemia? Type of cancer that involves overproduction of lymphocytes, many different types (see more purple cells than RBCs) Q4: What is blood typing? Presence of antigens allow our immune cells to recognize foreign cells present in our bodies When foreign cells are identified, immune cells act to destroy them Our blood cells have specific antigens present on them different from antibodies our immune cells carry -- helps our immune cells not attack our own RBCs Q5: How does blood typing by antigens work? blood type is determined by the antigen that is present on the surface of their blood cells (Type A expresses antigen A) treat unknown blood type with Anti-A and/or Anti-B antibodies -- agglutination observed when antibodies react to antigen (Anti-A with A antigen) Q6: What is the Rh factor? rhesus factor - protein found on surface of RBCs Presence of protein - Rh-positive Absence of protein - Rh-negative Q7: What is the role of neutrophils? phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens ("neutral" or pale colored granules, multilobed) Q8: What is the role of eosinophils? respond to allergens and parasitic worms (reddish, pink/orange granules due to eosin stain, bi lobed) Q9: What is the role of basophils? inflammation and allergic reactions (stain very dark because of heparin and histamine, u shaped) Q10: What is the role of lymphocytes? adaptive immune response (B and T cells) uniform, dark violet nuclear staining large, acentric nucleus that occupies most of the cell Q11: What is the role of monocytes? differentiate into macrophages after leaving bloodstream (horse-shoe or kidney shaped nucleus) Q12: What is the physiological reason for symptoms of anemia (weakness, shortness of breath, headaches, poor ability to exercise)? lack of hemoglobin to bind oxygen Q13: Is a hematocrit result of 60% RBC normal? If not, what is the possible condition? No, it could indicate polycythemia Q14: If blood type "O" has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, why is it a universal donor?

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PNB 2265 Exam 4 Questions with Correct
Answers | Sure To pass | already Graded
A+

Q1: What is infectious mononucleosis?
Viral disease, results in increased production of monocytes and lymphocytes (stained purple,
bilobed nucleus with rough borders, latches on/sticks to normal RBCs and creates net across
multiple)

Q2: What is polycythemia?
Over production of RBCs, result of bone marrow cancer

Q3: What is leukemia?
Type of cancer that involves overproduction of lymphocytes, many different types (see more
purple cells than RBCs)

Q4: What is blood typing?
Presence of antigens allow our immune cells to recognize foreign cells present in our bodies

When foreign cells are identified, immune cells act to destroy them

Our blood cells have specific antigens present on them different from antibodies our immune
cells carry --> helps our immune cells not attack our own RBCs

Q5: How does blood typing by antigens work?
blood type is determined by the antigen that is present on the surface of their blood cells (Type
A expresses antigen A)

treat unknown blood type with Anti-A and/or Anti-B antibodies --> agglutination observed
when antibodies react to antigen (Anti-A with A antigen)

Q6: What is the Rh factor?
rhesus factor - protein found on surface of RBCs

,Presence of protein - Rh-positive

Absence of protein - Rh-negative

Q7: What is the role of neutrophils?
phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens ("neutral" or pale colored granules, multilobed)

Q8: What is the role of eosinophils?
respond to allergens and parasitic worms (reddish, pink/orange granules due to eosin stain, bi-
lobed)

Q9: What is the role of basophils?
inflammation and allergic reactions (stain very dark because of heparin and histamine, u-
shaped)

Q10: What is the role of lymphocytes?
adaptive immune response (B and T cells)

uniform, dark violet nuclear staining

large, acentric nucleus that occupies most of the cell

Q11: What is the role of monocytes?
differentiate into macrophages after leaving bloodstream (horse-shoe or kidney shaped
nucleus)

Q12: What is the physiological reason for symptoms of anemia (weakness,
shortness of breath, headaches, poor ability to exercise)?
lack of hemoglobin to bind oxygen

Q13: Is a hematocrit result of 60% RBC normal? If not, what is the possible
condition?
No, it could indicate polycythemia

Q14: If blood type "O" has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, why is it a
universal donor?

,the recipient's antibodies are what matters, type O has no antigens for the recipient's
antibodies to bind to

Q15: If a blood typing reveals agglutination with anti-A antibodies but not anti-B
or anti-Rh antibodies, what blood type is being tested?
A- (antigen A reacted with anti-A antibodies, anti-Rh had no reaction indicating no Rh factor ->
negative blood type)

Q16: How do you calculate percent RBC in a hematocrit?
(packed RBC/total volume) x 100

Q17: What are the plasma proteins?
albumin (liver), globulin (leukocytes -> antibodies/immunoglobulin), fibrinogen (liver)

Q18: Which of the following statements is correct?
Readings on the hemoglobinometer are expressed as grams of Hb/100 ml blood.

Q19: Calculate the hematocrit in a microhematocrit tube if: height of the packed
red cell column is 65, height of the total blood column is 85
76.47%

Q20: Which leukocyte is the most abundant in the blood?
neutrophils

Q21: Which of the following blood diseases can be recognized by reactive
lymphocytes characterized by bright blue cytoplasm and "skirting" of red blood
cells?
Infectious mononucleosis

Q22: If a patient who is Type B+ blood receives a transfusion of Type A+ blood,
what would cause agglutination of the patient's blood?
The reaction of anti-A antibodies in patient's blood with Antigen A on surface of erythrocytes of
donor blood.

Q23: Which blood type is a universal donor and why?

, Type O, because of lack of A and B antigens.

Q24: What is the process of creating hemoglobin in the body?
built in bone marrow and liver through heme synthesis pathway

1) succinyl-coA from Krebs Cycle and glycine (amino acid) are converted into ALA
(aminolaevulinic acid)

2) molecules are then linked together to form "Protoporphyrin IX"

3) ferrochelatase inserts iron atom into center of ring forming "heme"

4) heme is tucked into a protein (globin) to create the hemoglobin

Q25: What is the problem with Rh factor?
Affects blood compatibility: Rh-negative individuals can only receive Rh-negative blood; Rh-
positive individuals can accept both

Q26: What is hemoglobin? Why is it important?
Crucial protein found on surface of RBC, made of four subunits and four heme groups

IMPORTANT because each heme group has an iron that binds oxygen

Q27: What is a hematocrit test?
A diagnostic test to see portion of RBCs in blood sample, can reveal multiple different disorders
- polycythemia, dehydration, anemia

Q28: What safety precautions are required with hematocrit testing?
Ensure plugged end of capillary tube faces outer wall of centrifuge (not center spindle)

TA must check tubes after loading them into centrifuge and will start centrifuge

No student should turn on centrifuge at any time

Q29: What safety precautions are required when working with blood in lab?
Wear gloves, disinfect lab bench before and after use

Dispose of gloves into biohazard box

Dispose of HCT tubes and cuvettes into red sharps container

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