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medium - a mixture of nutritional substances on or in which microorganisms grow autotroph - nutritionally deficient mutants that have lost the ability to synthesize a particular enzyme many microorganisms in this group: - can carry out photosynthesis - usually do not cause disease - synthesize organic compounds to obtain energy heterotroph - an organism that uses compounds to produce biomolecules autoclave - an instrument for sterilization by means of moist heat under pressure Autoclavi...

when viewing a smear with the oil immersion lens the final magnification is - 1000x;10x ocular x 100X objective what is the purpose of heat fixing - kill the bacteria, adhere to glass anddenature the proteins of bacteria name oneof the stains or regents used in the gram stain procedure - gram crystal violet, gram iodine, gram sfaranin, 95% ethanol why are aseptic techniques used in the lab? - to ensure that we do not contaminate what we are working with as as to ensue that we do not accie...

The total magnification of the oil immersion objective is: - 1000 Ocular/Eyepiece - Binocular microscopes have two. They magnify the image tenfold. Body - It contains mirrors that bend the light into the ocular. Nosepiece - Where the objectives are attached to. Objectives - Contains lenses that magnify the image. A microscope has 4x, 10x, 40x and 100x Arm - It supports the nosepiece, holds on/off toggle and focus adjustment knobs. Stage/Mechanical stage - The black, flat platform on which ...

Student lab attire - -closed shoes (toe and heel) -Protective coating (lab coats) -Hair secured back -gloves worn when there are open wounds on hands Student conduct - -wash hands thoroughly -use lab disinfectant before and after labs on the tables -Push chairs under the bench when not in use -Immediately notify instructor any accidents, injuries, spills, & misconduct. How to deal with dropped or broken cultures? - -immediately notify the instructor -Cover the contaminated area with pap...

What is the purpose of a streak plate? - 1) To separate cells so that they grow to form isolated colonies 2) To confirm if a culture is a pure colony or mixed 3) To confirm is there is contamination in your culture What is a colony? - Areas of growth that arise from a single cell. How do colonies form? - They are formed by spreading out cells. Cells are spread and reproduce over and over again through bionary fission until visable mass of cells appear. What is a pure culture? - Culture con...

Simple stain - -Add color to cells for viewing -Highlight entire organism's shape and basic structures -Includes: Methylene blue Safranin Crystal violet Carbolfuchsin Negative stain - -Enhances viewing of morphology, capsules -Bacteria are live -No heat fixing! (no denaturing) -Nigrosin ink -View under oil -Anionic (acidic) simple stain Gram stain - -Determines cell wall type (gram positive or negative) -Differential stain Gram stain procedure - 1. Crystal violet 2. Iodine (mo...

When preparing to view a specimen on a compound microscope in the lab, one should __________ begin with the 4x objective - Always Where should used gloves be disposed of in the microbiology lab - In the bio-hazard waste container Before putting a dust cover over the microscope and placing it in the cabinet, which objective lens should be rotated over the stage - 4x On the microscope, what concentrates the light on the specimen? - Condenser lens On the microscope, what bends light passing t...

Name the parts of the Compound Light Microscope: Eye piece, Objective, Stage, Light Control, Base, Focus - Dark-field Microscope - used when the microbes are not visible with the use of the light microscope; when microbes cannot be stained; when microbes would be distorted by staining Phase-Contrast Microscope - allows detailed visualization of the internal structures in living microbes Fluorescence Microscope - Immunofluorescence; detecting bacteria and other pathogens within cells and ...

A Living Will only goes into effect when: - The patient develops a terminal illness and can no longer communicate. Every healthcare facility is required to provide upon request all of the following kinds of information to the patient EXCEPT: - There are no exceptions; all are required. Living wills and durable powers of attorney are examples of: - Advance directives If a patient refuses treatment, the best course of action is to: - Provide the patient with information about the possible co...

Patient 1 - 1a- 0 1b- 0 1c- 0 2- 0 3- 0 4- 1 5a- 3 5b- 0 6a- 1 6b- 0 7- 1 8- 2 9- 0 10- 0 11- 1 Patient 2 - Patient 2 1a- 0 1b- 2 1c- 0 2- 0 3- 0 4- 1 5a- 0 5b- 0 6a- 0 6b- 0 7- 0 8- 1 9- 2 10- 1 11- 0 patient 3 - 1a- 0 1b- 0 1c- 0 2- 0 3- 0 4- 1 5a- 0 5b- 0 6a- 2 6b- 2 7- 0 8- 1 9- 0 10- 1 11- 0 Patient 4 - 1a- 0

Choose the true statement about reporting elder abuse and neglect to government authorities • All States require healthcare providers to report suspected abuse or neglect. • if a patient as a healthcare provider not to report, the mandatory reporting requirement is waived. • The primary goal of reporting requirements is to ensure that the patient is placed in the custody of state • many states requirement that healthcare providers report elder abuse or neglect, but no states mandat...

A patient assessment reveals distended neck veins, pulsus paradoxus, and decreased systolic pressure. This assessment is most consistent with: - cardiac tamponade. The nurse is caring for a patient with severe sepsis and third-degree heart block. The patient is hypotensive. The treatment for this life-threatening rhythm change includes: - transcutaneous pacing. A patient is admitted to the ICU with suspected cervical spinal cord injury following a motor vehicle accident. The most important...

The priority intervention for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is: - fluid replacement. What is the sign that a pressure ulcer is beginning to develop - Discoloration A 72-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department reporting substernal chest pain that she describes as "ripping"; it radiates into her back and is associated with cough and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 150/90 and her heart rate is 110. The emergency nurse anticipates administering: - What is t...

Hallways leading to the OR and the sterile processing areas are designated as ........ areas of the perioperative environment? - Semi-restricted The airflow in an OR has a(n) ...... pressure relationship to the adjacent OR hallway? - Positive Which of the following areas in a perioperative environment is considered a restricted area? - Operating Room Which team member establishes the sterile field and passes instruments to the surgeon? - scrub person What is the primary medication to trea...

Hallways leading to the OR and the sterile processing areas are designated as ........ areas of the perioperative environment? - Semi-restricted The airflow in an OR has a(n) ...... pressure relationship to the adjacent OR hallway? - Positive Which of the following areas in a perioperative environment is considered a restricted area? - Operating Room Which team member establishes the sterile field and passes instruments to the surgeon? - scrub person What is the primary medication to trea...

Where are assigned items located on your to do list? - Top of the page Courses for which you have earned continuing education credit issue a CE certificate separate from the course completion certificate. - True Where are elective items located on your to do list? - At the bottom of the page You can only delete certification information that you manually entered. - True Once you enroll in a course within an equivalent, you may not unenroll from that course. - False What field of the sign i...

When an interpreter is needed, it is best to use someone familiar to the patient such as a friend or family member. - False Which of the following is most likely to be a sign of domestic abuse in a patient? - The patient has repeat urinary tract infections. One important aspect of domestic abuse assessment is validation. Which of the following statements would best validate a victim? - I am concerned about your safety and health. Which is the most likely characteristic of the abuser in a v...

Intracranial hemorrhage's goal for treatment? - Stop bleeding. Decrease icp. Subdural hematoma? - bleeding between covering of brain (dura) and surface of brain. Compress brain tissue , leadin to brain dead. Most pt do not recover. Epidural hematoma? - covering of the brain (dura) peel away from skull (from skull fracture). Wake up and die. Changes in vital signs are late signs. SubArachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)? - aneurysm of artery in brain, causing rupture. This is a type of hemorhagic s...

HIPAA covers which of the following electronic transactions? - All of the above Which disclosure/use of PHI is allowed under the HIPAA Privacy Rule? - Releasing a patient's PHI to the patient when he or she requests access Which statement is true of an organization that sends and/or receives PHI electronically? - The organization is a covered entity under HIPAA All healthcare providers must obtain a National Provider Identification (NPI) to be used for all HIPAA standardized transaction...

Question 1: The PHI of 600 patients in Tennessee was breached. Whom should be notified? a. HHS secretary b. Patients involved c. Media d. All of the above - Your Answer All of the above Feedback All of these need to be notified. Question 2: Which use/disclosure of PHI is allowed under the HIPAA Privacy Rule? a. Releasing information about a celebrity patient to the media b. Requesting unnecessary information about a patient out of curiosity c. Discussing a patient's case with a pro...