Demetrius

1. Which of the following is considered a lipid? a. Chylomicrons b. LDL c. Cholesterol d. HDL correct answer: c 2. In the laboratory procedure for the quantification of HDL, the purpose of the dextran sulfate is to: a. Precipitate all Apo A1 containing lipoproteins b. Covert cholesterol esters to cholesterol for detection c. Precipitate all Apo B and Apo A containing lipoproteins d. Precipitate all Apo B containing proteins correct answer: d Which of the following lipopr...

Idexx Catalyst and advantage correct answer: newer improved blood chemistry profile machine -don't have to test all 16 components of blood chemistry at once, can test more than one sample at once What is needed for Sample Collection correct answer: blood, plasma or serum Blood should be (preferred) correct answer: preprandial Preprandial correct answer: animal fasted for 12 hours GI profile requires a correct answer: 16 hour fast Specific protocols for clinical chemistry de...

Which of the following is the percent concentration of a solution (w/v) containing 300g of MgCl2 dissolved in 2.5L of distilled water? a. 12% b. 13% c. 24% d. 25% correct answer: a. 12% Which of the following is the molarity of a solution containing 400g of HCl dissolved in 1.5 liters of distilled water? (gms of HCl = 36) a. 6.4M b. 6.3M c. 7.4M d. 7.8M correct answer: c. 7.4M A 24-hour urine sample submitted to the laboratory for creatinine determination has a total volume of 15...

Sample Collection and Handling correct answer: 1.- Serum (red top) for most chemistry tests 2.- Plama- Heparin better than oxalate, EDTA, citrate 3.-Heparin (on ice)-ammonia, blood gases 4.- Sodium fluoride (gray top) a) Glucose (prevents glycolysis) b) NOT for BUN (inhibits urease) 5.- Acid Phosphatase must be stabilized or pH decreased 6.- EDTA a) NOT for Na+ of K+ (EDTA contains Na+ and K+) b) Not for Ca++ since calcium is chelated in EDTA (will cause a false decreased) correct an...

define clinical chemistry correct answer: the analysis of body substances & interpretation of resultant data as an *AID* to diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment *implies a pathologic change can be distinguished from a non-pathologic change* *requires a point of reference for making a comparison* define reference interval correct answer: an interval of values within the majority of healthy patients values lie this interval of values if used for making comparisons *not the "normal...

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) correct answer: enzyme present in high concentration in liver and that is measured to assess liver function; SGPT Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP or AP) correct answer: enzyme widely distributed in the body, especially in the liver and bone Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) correct answer: enzyme present in many tisues, including cardiac, muscle, and liver, that is measured to assess liver function BUN correct answer: Blood urine nitrogen: a test measuring ur...

5-136 At what rate do skin cells exfoliate from OR personnel? A- 10,000 cells per hour B- 20,000 cells per hour C- 50,000 cells per hour D- 30,000 cells per hour correct answer: C- 50,000 cells per hour 5-214 When is it most appropriate to alert the surgeon of a problem with the monitoring? A- When any change occurs B- After a loss of 30% and 5% latency C- After all waveforms are lost D- After a loss of 55% amplitude correct answer: D- After a loss of 55%...

A unit of resistance is symbolized by... correct answer: Ohms Fast Fourier transformation correct answer: The mathematical transformation f a complex waveform into simpler, more uniform waves The capacity to resolve amplitudes of 256 discrete steps would require an 8 bit A to D converter. This can be represented by... correct answer: 2^8 What is the minimum required bandpass for an EP system? correct answer: 0.1 - 5,000 Hz The gain of an amplifier, set to give an output signal of...

Which of the following pathways decussate below the brainstem? correct answer: Spinothalamic The vertebral artery travels through the cervical spine in an opening called correct answer: Transverse foramen What part of the spinal cord is supplied by the anterior spinal artery? correct answer: The ventral 2/3 of the spinal cord Ankylosis correct answer: Fused joint Burst fractures of the spine most commonly occur correct answer: At the thoracolumbar junction The L3 nerve root e...

Instrumentation systems used to distract, compress, and de-rotate the spine to restore normal vertebral column alignment, include: correct answer: Cotrel-Dubousset and ISOLA The resting membrane potential is created by differences between the inside and outside of the cell in ion concentrations of correct answer: K+, Na+, and Cl- If all channels are showing excessive 60 Hz noise, what should you do? correct answer: Check your ground impedance A grounding device must be available so t...

What is the initial event that occurs when the action potential threshold of a neuron is reached? correct answer: Voltage gated Sodium channels open What does the sodium potassium pump do? correct answer: Pumps K+ into cell and Na out of cell Which of the following has the greatest effect on SSEP Monitoring? -Fentanyl -Diazepam -Pavulon -Sevoflourane correct answer: -Diazepam Which of the following is a barbituate? -Remifentanil -Methohexital -Curare -Nitrous Oxide correct an...

If the VIIIth nerve were transected, you would get A- No change B- Increased I-III latency C- Loss of wave III - V D- Absence of all waves I-V correct answer: D- Absence of all waves I-V Epidural electrodes should be placed: A- Inside the spinal cord B- Between the dura and the spinal cord C- Above the dura D- Above the lamina correct answer: C- Above the dura Early changes to CMAPs, during the exposure of CN VII, are most likely due to: A- an increase in inhalation agents...

Pause Recording correct answer: During electrocautery you should... Wernicke's area correct answer: The portion of the brain involved in the understanding of written an spoken language is referred to as: SSEPs are less reliable in patients with... correct answer: Neuromuscular disease After-discharges occur after what? correct answer: Direct cortical stimulation In order to reduce stimulus artifact, the ground electrode shoudl be placed... correct answer: On the limb between th...

A patient with a body temperature of 30 degrees C will have: A- Decreased latencies B- Decreased latencies, decreased amplitudes C- Increased latencies D- Increased latencies, decreased amplitudes correct answer: C- Increased latencies The P31 response to posterior tibial nerve stimulation: A- Is recordable over a generalized region of scalp B- Is best recorded by an electrode placed at CS5 C- Is generated by the thalamus D- Reflects post-synaptic activity in the cervical spinal ...

Diabetes Mellitus correct answer: Peripheral Neuropathy To display median nerve SSEP response as an upward deflection, which of the following must be known? correct answer: Waveform polarity and polarity convention of the amplifier inputs The facial nerve enervates all of the following structures except: correct answer: Tensor veli palatini muscle For preoperative posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following would be the best ipsilateral location for the g...

Extreme retraction of the Cerebellar during BAEP correct answer: Loss of all waveforms due to vascular compromise Effect of drilling during BAEP correct answer: Highly variable, causes temporary threshold change, and prolongs wave 5 Effects of retracting during CPA correct answer: Ipsilateral prolongation of 1-5 inter peak interval Manipulation of Vestiblocochlear nerve correct answer: Changes seen in wave 1 Wave 1 from cochlear microphonic correct answer: Alternating polarity ...

ABR condensation clicks from the transducer causes: correct answer: Movement of the tympanic membrane toward the cochlea Excessive cerumen may cause: correct answer: Absence of the BAER The input impedance of a differential amplifier should be: correct answer: At least 100,000,000 ohms Which of the following is the most likely choice as a neuroprotective drug during aneurysm clipping? correct answer: Thiopental Which procedure would require intraoperative spinal cord monitoring c...

Which is the most common type of change observed during CEA? A- Ipsilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to contralateral stimulation B- Bilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to bilateral stimulation C- Ipsilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to ipsilateral stimulation D- Contalateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to contralateral stimulation correct answer: A- Ipsilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to contralateral stimulation Which of the following woul...

White matter consists of what type of fiber tracts? correct answer: Axon of nerve fibers In the visual pathway, fibers anterior to the optic chiasm are called correct answer: Optic Nerves If a neurologist suspects nerve damage in a PTs neurological exam, he may order correct answer: Nerve conduction/EMG excitatory neurotransmitter correct answer: Glutamate The trigeminal nerve can be monitored from which muscle? correct answer: Masseter Damage to which structure would most li...

Lower motors neurons primarily exit the cord through the: 1 dorsal nerve roots 2 ventral nerve roots 3 dorsal columns 4 dorsal root ganglia correct answer: Ventral Nerve Roots Which one of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter? 1 GABA 2 Glutamate 3 Glycine 4 Phenylalanine correct answer: Glutamate Which one of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter? 1 GABA 2 Serotonin 3 Dopamine 4 Phenlalanine correct answer: GABA The layers of protective tissue which s...