CEA Exam Prep Full Practice
Test – Exam-Style Q&A
Including Exam Questions
and Certified Answers, with
a 100% Guarantee of
Success
,Question 1
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view
shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location
of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Correct Answer
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
lobe lingula.
Question 2
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the
following diagnoses?
Correct Answer
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Question 3
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He
has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication
to prescribe him?
Correct Answer
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with
a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifi cations.
Question 4
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical
imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
Correct Answer
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal
dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not
,able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Question 5
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
Correct Answer
phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
Question 6
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung
auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is
signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung
assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an
acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that,
rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of
fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Question 7
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection
fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a
myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent
to the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
Correct Answer
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk
of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for
an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months
to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline
echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
, Question 8
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease?
Correct Answer
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at
increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
Question 9
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker, and her
hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a
heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200.
In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should start the
patient on:
Correct Answer
a statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing
ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary disease history
(less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is most
certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy option of
these four listed.
Question 10
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension?
Correct Answer
Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in non-hypertensive
diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
Question 11
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except?
Correct Answer
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent modifiable risk
factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age,
gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
Question 12
Test – Exam-Style Q&A
Including Exam Questions
and Certified Answers, with
a 100% Guarantee of
Success
,Question 1
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view
shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location
of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Correct Answer
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
lobe lingula.
Question 2
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the
following diagnoses?
Correct Answer
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Question 3
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He
has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication
to prescribe him?
Correct Answer
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with
a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifi cations.
Question 4
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical
imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
Correct Answer
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal
dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not
,able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Question 5
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
Correct Answer
phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
Question 6
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung
auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is
signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung
assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an
acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that,
rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of
fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Question 7
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection
fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a
myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent
to the left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
Correct Answer
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk
of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for
an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months
to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline
echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
, Question 8
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease?
Correct Answer
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at
increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
Question 9
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker, and her
hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a
heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200.
In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should start the
patient on:
Correct Answer
a statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing
ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary disease history
(less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is most
certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy option of
these four listed.
Question 10
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension?
Correct Answer
Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in non-hypertensive
diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
Question 11
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except?
Correct Answer
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent modifiable risk
factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age,
gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
Question 12
