ATI PN EXIT Exam | ACTUAL EXAM | Complete PN Exit
Questions & Verified Answers | Latest
Update | Already Graded A
1. A postoperative client has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is difficult to arouse 30
minutes after receiving IV morphine. Which action should the PN take first?
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
C. Stimulate the client verbally and physically
D. Call the rapid-response team
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Opioid-induced respiratory depression is a life-threatening emergency; the
priority is reversal with naloxone. Increasing oxygen (B) does not treat the cause.
Stimulation (C) is temporary. Calling the team (D) occurs after antidote administration.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push twice daily.
Which finding best indicates the medication is effective?
A. Loss of 1 kg body weight in 24 hours
B. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Urine output 30 mL/hr for 2 hours
D. Blood pressure 88/50 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: A 1 kg weight loss reflects approximately 1 L fluid loss, demonstrating
diuresis. Hypokalemia (B) is an adverse effect. Thirty mL/hr (C) is below expected
output. Hypotension (D) may indicate over-diuresis.
3. The PN is delegating morning hygiene to assistive personnel (AP) for a client
with Clostridioides difficile. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand rub before and after care
B. Wear gloves and perform hand hygiene with soap and water
C. Apply a surgical mask and eye protection
D. Place the client on airborne precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores resist alcohol; gloves and soap-and-water hand hygiene are
required. Alcohol rub (A) is ineffective. Mask/eye (C) is needed only for splash risk.
Airborne precautions (D) are unnecessary; contact precautions suffice.
4. A 6-year-old with asthma is receiving albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4
hours. Which change warrants immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate increases from 100 to 120 bpm
B. Respiratory rate drops from 30 to 24/min with continued wheezing
C. Peak flow improves from 60 % to 80 % predicted
D. Oxygen saturation rises from 92 % to 96 %
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decreasing respiratory rate with persistent wheezing may signal respiratory
muscle fatigue and impending failure. Mild tachycardia (A) is expected. Improved peak
flow (C) and SpO₂ (D) are desired effects.
, 5. A client 12 hours postpartum has a fundus 3 cm above the umbilicus and
deviated to the right. What should the PN do first?
A. Massage the fundus vigorously
B. Assist the client to void
C. Increase IV oxytocin
D. Call the health-care provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A high, deviated fundus suggests bladder distension; emptying the bladder
usually restores uterine tone. Massage (A) is done after voiding if the fundus remains
boggy. Oxytocin (C) may be ordered later. The provider (D) is contacted if no change
after voiding.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives epoetin alfa. Which
laboratory value best reflects a therapeutic response?
A. Hemoglobin rises from 8 to 10 g/dL over 4 weeks
B. Serum creatinine decreases from 3.0 to 2.5 mg/dL
C. White blood cell count increases from 4 000 to 6 000/mm³
D. Platelet count remains at 150 000/mm³
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin stimulates erythropoiesis; rising hemoglobin indicates success.
Creatinine (B) measures kidney function, not drug effect. WBC (C) and platelets (D) are
unrelated outcomes.
7. The PN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The apical pulse is 58
bpm. What action should the PN take?
, A. Give the medication and recheck the pulse in 1 hour
B. Hold the dose and reassess the pulse in 15 minutes
C. Administer half the prescribed dose
D. Contact the pharmacist for a liquid formulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is withheld for a pulse < 60 bpm; reassess to confirm. Giving (A, C)
risks toxicity. Formulation change (D) is irrelevant.
8. A client with bipolar disorder is started on lithium carbonate. Which client
statement indicates teaching was effective?
A. “I will drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily.”
B. “I should limit sodium in my diet.”
C. “I can double my dose if my mood swings return.”
D. “I will take the medication only when I feel hyper.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adequate hydration prevents lithium toxicity. Sodium restriction (B) increases
reabsorption and toxicity. Doubling the dose (C) and PRN use (D) reflect non-adherence
and dangerous self-adjustment.
9. A client scheduled for surgery has an INR of 4.5 (normal 0.8–1.2). What action is
priority?
A. Apply sequential compression devices
B. Administer vitamin K as ordered
C. Obtain a type and crossmatch
D. Reinforce the surgical site with extra dressing
Questions & Verified Answers | Latest
Update | Already Graded A
1. A postoperative client has a respiratory rate of 8/min and is difficult to arouse 30
minutes after receiving IV morphine. Which action should the PN take first?
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
C. Stimulate the client verbally and physically
D. Call the rapid-response team
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Opioid-induced respiratory depression is a life-threatening emergency; the
priority is reversal with naloxone. Increasing oxygen (B) does not treat the cause.
Stimulation (C) is temporary. Calling the team (D) occurs after antidote administration.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push twice daily.
Which finding best indicates the medication is effective?
A. Loss of 1 kg body weight in 24 hours
B. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Urine output 30 mL/hr for 2 hours
D. Blood pressure 88/50 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: A 1 kg weight loss reflects approximately 1 L fluid loss, demonstrating
diuresis. Hypokalemia (B) is an adverse effect. Thirty mL/hr (C) is below expected
output. Hypotension (D) may indicate over-diuresis.
3. The PN is delegating morning hygiene to assistive personnel (AP) for a client
with Clostridioides difficile. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand rub before and after care
B. Wear gloves and perform hand hygiene with soap and water
C. Apply a surgical mask and eye protection
D. Place the client on airborne precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores resist alcohol; gloves and soap-and-water hand hygiene are
required. Alcohol rub (A) is ineffective. Mask/eye (C) is needed only for splash risk.
Airborne precautions (D) are unnecessary; contact precautions suffice.
4. A 6-year-old with asthma is receiving albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4
hours. Which change warrants immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate increases from 100 to 120 bpm
B. Respiratory rate drops from 30 to 24/min with continued wheezing
C. Peak flow improves from 60 % to 80 % predicted
D. Oxygen saturation rises from 92 % to 96 %
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decreasing respiratory rate with persistent wheezing may signal respiratory
muscle fatigue and impending failure. Mild tachycardia (A) is expected. Improved peak
flow (C) and SpO₂ (D) are desired effects.
, 5. A client 12 hours postpartum has a fundus 3 cm above the umbilicus and
deviated to the right. What should the PN do first?
A. Massage the fundus vigorously
B. Assist the client to void
C. Increase IV oxytocin
D. Call the health-care provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A high, deviated fundus suggests bladder distension; emptying the bladder
usually restores uterine tone. Massage (A) is done after voiding if the fundus remains
boggy. Oxytocin (C) may be ordered later. The provider (D) is contacted if no change
after voiding.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives epoetin alfa. Which
laboratory value best reflects a therapeutic response?
A. Hemoglobin rises from 8 to 10 g/dL over 4 weeks
B. Serum creatinine decreases from 3.0 to 2.5 mg/dL
C. White blood cell count increases from 4 000 to 6 000/mm³
D. Platelet count remains at 150 000/mm³
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin stimulates erythropoiesis; rising hemoglobin indicates success.
Creatinine (B) measures kidney function, not drug effect. WBC (C) and platelets (D) are
unrelated outcomes.
7. The PN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The apical pulse is 58
bpm. What action should the PN take?
, A. Give the medication and recheck the pulse in 1 hour
B. Hold the dose and reassess the pulse in 15 minutes
C. Administer half the prescribed dose
D. Contact the pharmacist for a liquid formulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is withheld for a pulse < 60 bpm; reassess to confirm. Giving (A, C)
risks toxicity. Formulation change (D) is irrelevant.
8. A client with bipolar disorder is started on lithium carbonate. Which client
statement indicates teaching was effective?
A. “I will drink 8 to 10 glasses of water daily.”
B. “I should limit sodium in my diet.”
C. “I can double my dose if my mood swings return.”
D. “I will take the medication only when I feel hyper.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adequate hydration prevents lithium toxicity. Sodium restriction (B) increases
reabsorption and toxicity. Doubling the dose (C) and PRN use (D) reflect non-adherence
and dangerous self-adjustment.
9. A client scheduled for surgery has an INR of 4.5 (normal 0.8–1.2). What action is
priority?
A. Apply sequential compression devices
B. Administer vitamin K as ordered
C. Obtain a type and crossmatch
D. Reinforce the surgical site with extra dressing
