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NURS 5433 Final Exam- Review (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+
NURS 5433 FINAL EXAM
1. A client with heart failure presents with shortness of
breath, orthopnea, and edema. Which lab finding is most
concerning?
A. BNP 150 pg/mL
B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (>5.0 mEq/L) can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias, especially in
heart failure clients.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV
to a client. Which assessment is priority?
A. Blood pressure and potassium level
B. Heart rate only
C. Lung sounds only
D. Intake and output
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypotension and hypokalemia; assessing BP and K+ is
critical.
3. A client with COPD reports increasing shortness of breath
and O₂ saturation of 88%. Which is the priority
intervention?
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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A. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Call respiratory therapy
D. Place in high Fowler’s position
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxemia (<90% O₂ saturation) requires immediate supplemental oxygen to
prevent tissue hypoxia.
4. A client is on warfarin therapy. Which client statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I will eat large amounts of spinach daily.”
B. “I should report any unusual bleeding or bruising.”
C. “I don’t need lab tests once I feel fine.”
D. “I can double my dose if I miss one.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk; reporting unusual bruising or bleeding is essential.
5. Which of the following is a priority for a client with
suspected sepsis?
A. Obtain blood cultures before antibiotics
B. Administer IV fluids after cultures
C. Monitor blood glucose
D. Encourage ambulation
Answer: A
Rationale: Blood cultures should be obtained before antibiotics to identify causative organism,
but treatment must not be delayed.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue,
pallor, and hemoglobin 7 g/dL. Which is the priority
intervention?
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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A. Administer IV fluids
B. Prepare for blood transfusion
C. Encourage rest
D. Start diuretics
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe anemia (<8 g/dL) in CKD may require transfusion to prevent hypoxia.
7. A client on a PCA pump is drowsy and has a respiratory
rate of 8/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the PCA and notify provider
B. Increase oxygen
C. Encourage deep breathing
D. Document findings
Answer: A
Rationale: Signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a medical
emergency.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes experiencing
hypoglycemia (glucose 48 mg/dL) who is alert. What is the
best intervention?
A. Administer IV dextrose
B. Give 15 g of oral glucose
C. Hold insulin
D. Recheck glucose in 2 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Oral glucose is first-line for alert clients with mild hypoglycemia.
9. Which assessment finding indicates worsening heart
failure?
A. O₂ saturation 95%
B. Crackles in lungs
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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C. Mild ankle edema
D. Heart rate 80 bpm
Answer: B
Rationale: Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion → worsening HF.
10. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks why
preoperative teaching is important. Which response is
correct?
A. “It helps reduce anxiety and complications.”
B. “It is required for insurance purposes.”
C. “It replaces anesthesia.”
D. “It shortens surgery time.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Pre-op teaching reduces anxiety and postoperative complications.
11. A client with pneumonia is on oxygen 2 L/min via nasal
cannula. Which O₂ saturation indicates a need for action?
A. 94%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 92%
Answer: C
Rationale: O₂ saturation <90% indicates hypoxemia, requiring intervention.
12. A client reports sudden chest pain radiating to the left
arm with shortness of breath. Which is the priority action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Call provider and prepare for ECG
C. Place client in Trendelenburg
D. Start IV fluids
2026 2027 GRADED A+
NURS 5433 Final Exam- Review (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+
NURS 5433 FINAL EXAM
1. A client with heart failure presents with shortness of
breath, orthopnea, and edema. Which lab finding is most
concerning?
A. BNP 150 pg/mL
B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (>5.0 mEq/L) can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias, especially in
heart failure clients.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV
to a client. Which assessment is priority?
A. Blood pressure and potassium level
B. Heart rate only
C. Lung sounds only
D. Intake and output
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypotension and hypokalemia; assessing BP and K+ is
critical.
3. A client with COPD reports increasing shortness of breath
and O₂ saturation of 88%. Which is the priority
intervention?
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
A. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Call respiratory therapy
D. Place in high Fowler’s position
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxemia (<90% O₂ saturation) requires immediate supplemental oxygen to
prevent tissue hypoxia.
4. A client is on warfarin therapy. Which client statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I will eat large amounts of spinach daily.”
B. “I should report any unusual bleeding or bruising.”
C. “I don’t need lab tests once I feel fine.”
D. “I can double my dose if I miss one.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk; reporting unusual bruising or bleeding is essential.
5. Which of the following is a priority for a client with
suspected sepsis?
A. Obtain blood cultures before antibiotics
B. Administer IV fluids after cultures
C. Monitor blood glucose
D. Encourage ambulation
Answer: A
Rationale: Blood cultures should be obtained before antibiotics to identify causative organism,
but treatment must not be delayed.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue,
pallor, and hemoglobin 7 g/dL. Which is the priority
intervention?
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
A. Administer IV fluids
B. Prepare for blood transfusion
C. Encourage rest
D. Start diuretics
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe anemia (<8 g/dL) in CKD may require transfusion to prevent hypoxia.
7. A client on a PCA pump is drowsy and has a respiratory
rate of 8/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the PCA and notify provider
B. Increase oxygen
C. Encourage deep breathing
D. Document findings
Answer: A
Rationale: Signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a medical
emergency.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes experiencing
hypoglycemia (glucose 48 mg/dL) who is alert. What is the
best intervention?
A. Administer IV dextrose
B. Give 15 g of oral glucose
C. Hold insulin
D. Recheck glucose in 2 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Oral glucose is first-line for alert clients with mild hypoglycemia.
9. Which assessment finding indicates worsening heart
failure?
A. O₂ saturation 95%
B. Crackles in lungs
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
C. Mild ankle edema
D. Heart rate 80 bpm
Answer: B
Rationale: Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion → worsening HF.
10. A client is scheduled for surgery and asks why
preoperative teaching is important. Which response is
correct?
A. “It helps reduce anxiety and complications.”
B. “It is required for insurance purposes.”
C. “It replaces anesthesia.”
D. “It shortens surgery time.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Pre-op teaching reduces anxiety and postoperative complications.
11. A client with pneumonia is on oxygen 2 L/min via nasal
cannula. Which O₂ saturation indicates a need for action?
A. 94%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 92%
Answer: C
Rationale: O₂ saturation <90% indicates hypoxemia, requiring intervention.
12. A client reports sudden chest pain radiating to the left
arm with shortness of breath. Which is the priority action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Call provider and prepare for ECG
C. Place client in Trendelenburg
D. Start IV fluids
2026 2027 GRADED A+
