ESTUDYR
APHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED ATI 2025 MULTICHOICE
ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
1. Acetazolamide is a non-antimicrobial sulfonamide used in acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Which is an important safety note?
A. No monitoring required
B. Ask about sulfonamide allergy
C. Avoid in renal failure only if creatinine <1.0
D. Never interacts with lithium
Rationale: Acetazolamide is a sulfonamide; allergy is a contraindication.
2. Besides glaucoma, acetazolamide can also be used for:
A. Bacterial infections only
B. Hypertension only
C. Acute mountain sickness, seizures, and heart failure
D. Asthma only
Rationale: It has multiple indications due to diuretic and CNS effects.
3. Which medication's levels should be monitored when a patient is on acetazolamide?
A. Warfarin
B. Lithium
C. Metformin
D. Atenolol
Rationale: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can alter lithium excretion.
4. Which OTC or antacid use should you question when starting acetazolamide?
A. Calcium supplements only
B. Iron tablets only
C. Sodium bicarbonate and some antacids
D. Vitamin D only
Rationale: Alkali can alter acid–base balance and reduce effectiveness.
5. What should you teach a patient on phenytoin who is prescribed acetazolamide?
A. Expect weight gain only
B. Report bone pain or weakness
C. It cures all seizures immediately
D. Stop phenytoin when taking acetazolamide
Rationale: Both drugs can affect bone metabolism; monitor bone symptoms.
,ESTUDYR
6. Long-term prednisone use requires which diagnostic test?
A. Chest X-ray monthly
B. Bone density scans
C. Liver ultrasound weekly
D. Daily ECGs
Rationale: Chronic steroids cause osteoporosis — bone density monitoring is indicated.
7. Which beverage may reduce GI irritation when taking furosemide?
A. Orange juice only
B. Coffee only
C. Milk
D. Grapefruit juice
Rationale: Milk can soothe gastric mucosa and reduce irritation for some patients.
8. A common adverse effect of acetazolamide used for chronic open-angle glaucoma is:
A. Bradycardia
B. Severe constipation
C. Tingling of fingers (paresthesias)
D. Hair loss
Rationale: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors commonly cause paresthesias.
9. Atropine eye drops commonly cause which adverse effect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hearing loss
C. Blurred vision
D. Increased urination
Rationale: Anticholinergic eye drops dilate pupils and blur near vision.
10. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole patient teaching should include:
A. Reduce fluid intake
B. Take with antacids only
C. Drink 8–10 glasses of water daily
D. Avoid all fruits
Rationale: Hydration helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones with sulfonamides.
11. Before starting clozapine for schizophrenia, which baseline test is required?
A. Urinalysis only
B. WBC and differential (baseline and regular monitoring)
C. Only blood glucose once yearly
, ESTUDYR
D. Chest CT only
Rationale: Clozapine carries risk of agranulocytosis; WBC monitoring is mandatory.
12. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy from this list?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Tetracyclines cause fetal teeth and bone effects and are contraindicated.
13. Which drug can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
A. Metformin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Warfarin
Rationale: Carbamazepine induces hepatic enzymes that lower contraceptive hormones.
14. Ketorolac adverse effect commonly noted is:
A. Hypotension only
B. Bruising/bleeding
C. Hypertension only
D. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: NSAIDs increase bleeding risk and can impair platelet function.
15. Which pair of drugs are first-line treatments for tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazid and metronidazole
B. Rifampin and isoniazid
C. Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin
D. Azithromycin and clindamycin
Rationale: Rifampin and isoniazid are core TB drugs in combination therapy.
16. Zolpidem (Ambien) is primarily used for:
A. Long-term depression
B. Short-term insomnia
C. Hypertension
D. Seizure control
Rationale: Zolpidem is a short-acting hypnotic for sleep initiation.
17. Diltiazem is which class of medication?
A. Beta blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
APHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED ATI 2025 MULTICHOICE
ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
1. Acetazolamide is a non-antimicrobial sulfonamide used in acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Which is an important safety note?
A. No monitoring required
B. Ask about sulfonamide allergy
C. Avoid in renal failure only if creatinine <1.0
D. Never interacts with lithium
Rationale: Acetazolamide is a sulfonamide; allergy is a contraindication.
2. Besides glaucoma, acetazolamide can also be used for:
A. Bacterial infections only
B. Hypertension only
C. Acute mountain sickness, seizures, and heart failure
D. Asthma only
Rationale: It has multiple indications due to diuretic and CNS effects.
3. Which medication's levels should be monitored when a patient is on acetazolamide?
A. Warfarin
B. Lithium
C. Metformin
D. Atenolol
Rationale: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can alter lithium excretion.
4. Which OTC or antacid use should you question when starting acetazolamide?
A. Calcium supplements only
B. Iron tablets only
C. Sodium bicarbonate and some antacids
D. Vitamin D only
Rationale: Alkali can alter acid–base balance and reduce effectiveness.
5. What should you teach a patient on phenytoin who is prescribed acetazolamide?
A. Expect weight gain only
B. Report bone pain or weakness
C. It cures all seizures immediately
D. Stop phenytoin when taking acetazolamide
Rationale: Both drugs can affect bone metabolism; monitor bone symptoms.
,ESTUDYR
6. Long-term prednisone use requires which diagnostic test?
A. Chest X-ray monthly
B. Bone density scans
C. Liver ultrasound weekly
D. Daily ECGs
Rationale: Chronic steroids cause osteoporosis — bone density monitoring is indicated.
7. Which beverage may reduce GI irritation when taking furosemide?
A. Orange juice only
B. Coffee only
C. Milk
D. Grapefruit juice
Rationale: Milk can soothe gastric mucosa and reduce irritation for some patients.
8. A common adverse effect of acetazolamide used for chronic open-angle glaucoma is:
A. Bradycardia
B. Severe constipation
C. Tingling of fingers (paresthesias)
D. Hair loss
Rationale: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors commonly cause paresthesias.
9. Atropine eye drops commonly cause which adverse effect?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hearing loss
C. Blurred vision
D. Increased urination
Rationale: Anticholinergic eye drops dilate pupils and blur near vision.
10. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole patient teaching should include:
A. Reduce fluid intake
B. Take with antacids only
C. Drink 8–10 glasses of water daily
D. Avoid all fruits
Rationale: Hydration helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones with sulfonamides.
11. Before starting clozapine for schizophrenia, which baseline test is required?
A. Urinalysis only
B. WBC and differential (baseline and regular monitoring)
C. Only blood glucose once yearly
, ESTUDYR
D. Chest CT only
Rationale: Clozapine carries risk of agranulocytosis; WBC monitoring is mandatory.
12. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy from this list?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Tetracyclines cause fetal teeth and bone effects and are contraindicated.
13. Which drug can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
A. Metformin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Warfarin
Rationale: Carbamazepine induces hepatic enzymes that lower contraceptive hormones.
14. Ketorolac adverse effect commonly noted is:
A. Hypotension only
B. Bruising/bleeding
C. Hypertension only
D. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: NSAIDs increase bleeding risk and can impair platelet function.
15. Which pair of drugs are first-line treatments for tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazid and metronidazole
B. Rifampin and isoniazid
C. Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin
D. Azithromycin and clindamycin
Rationale: Rifampin and isoniazid are core TB drugs in combination therapy.
16. Zolpidem (Ambien) is primarily used for:
A. Long-term depression
B. Short-term insomnia
C. Hypertension
D. Seizure control
Rationale: Zolpidem is a short-acting hypnotic for sleep initiation.
17. Diltiazem is which class of medication?
A. Beta blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
