AIR EVAC LIFETEAM – GOM EXAM STUDY GUIDE (2026)
100 Structured Questions & Answers
SECTION 1 – GENERAL OPERATIONS (GOM)
1. Q: What is the primary mission of Air Evac Lifeteam?
A: To provide safe, rapid, high-quality air medical transport to critically ill or injured patients.
2. Q: What is the highest organizational priority according to the GOM?
A: Safety of patients, crew, and aircraft.
3. Q: Who has the ultimate authority for flight decisions?
A: The Pilot in Command (PIC).
4. Q: What is the minimum acceptable visibility for VFR operations under AE Lifeteam GOM?
A: Varies by class of airspace, but must meet or exceed company and FAA minimums—
whichever is more restrictive.
5. Q: What is the crew’s responsibility regarding company policies?
A: All crew must know, follow, and enforce GOM policies.
6. Q: What should be done if there is a conflict between company procedures and FAA
regulations?
A: Follow the more restrictive rule.
7. Q: What document governs all flight operations?
A: The General Operations Manual (GOM).
8. Q: Who may cancel a flight?
A: Any crew member, at any time, for any safety concern.
9. Q: What is a "safety-first" go/no-go decision?
A: A decision based solely on safety, not on mission pressure or operational demands.
10. Q: Are crew members allowed to self-dispatch?
A: No. All missions must follow proper communications and dispatch protocols.
SECTION 2 – CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (CRM)
,11. Q: What is the purpose of CRM?
A: To enhance safety through effective communication, teamwork, and decision-making.
12. Q: What is “challenge and response”?
A: A safety technique where crew question unclear or unsafe actions until resolved.
13. Q: What is the "two-challenge rule"?
A: If a concern is raised twice without correction, escalate or intervene immediately.
14. Q: Define “situational awareness.”
A: The continuous perception of environmental elements and their meaning.
15. Q: What is "task saturation"?
A: When workload exceeds a person’s ability to process information effectively.
16. Q: What should a medical crew member do if they notice weather deteriorating?
A: Immediately inform the pilot.
17. Q: What does AMRM stand for?
A: Air Medical Resource Management.
18. Q: What is “confirmation bias”?
A: Ignoring conflicting information to support a preferred decision.
19. Q: How should conflict in the cockpit be handled?
A: Open communication focused on safety, using CRM principles.
20. Q: What is a red-flag statement?
A: A verbal cue indicating concern about safety (e.g., “I’m uncomfortable with this.”)
SECTION 3 – WEATHER & FLIGHT RISK ASSESSMENT
21. Q: What is the purpose of the Flight Risk Assessment Tool (FRAT)?
A: To quantify mission risk and ensure risks are mitigated before flight.
22. Q: When must the FRAT be completed?
A: Before each mission and updated if conditions change.
23. Q: What must be done if the FRAT score exceeds limits?
A: Additional mitigation applied or mission declined.
24. Q: What is the minimum ceiling allowed for night VFR flight (company policy may vary)?
A: Typically higher than FAA minimums—company standard applies.
,25. Q: What is the pilot required to check for weather?
A: METARs, TAFs, forecasts, radar, NOTAMS, and local conditions.
26. Q: What is “inadvertent IMC”?
A: Entering instrument meteorological conditions when not planned.
27. Q: What is the proper response to inadvertent IMC?
A: Initiate the company’s IIMC escape procedure immediately.
28. Q: Can weather minimums be reduced for urgency?
A: No, never.
29. Q: When should weather be re-evaluated?
A: Continuously throughout the mission.
30. Q: What conditions automatically require cancellation?
A: Below-minimum weather, unsafe winds, or pilot judgement.
SECTION 4 – AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
31. Q: Who ensures the aircraft is airworthy before flight?
A: The Pilot in Command.
32. Q: What documents must be onboard the aircraft?
A: Airworthiness certificate, registration, operating limitations, and weight & balance.
33. Q: Define “sterile cockpit.”
A: No unnecessary conversation during critical phases of flight.
34. Q: When does sterile cockpit apply?
A: Takeoff, landing, approach, and any high-workload period.
35. Q: Who is responsible for securing all interior equipment before takeoff?
A: Medical crew and pilot collaboratively.
36. Q: What is required before hot-loading or hot-unloading patients?
A: Pilot confirmation and clear communication.
37. Q: What are the crew’s actions during an engine start?
A: Maintain a sterile environment and observe for hazards.
38. Q: What is the procedure if a landing zone (LZ) becomes unsafe?
A: Abort and reassess or select another LZ.
, 39. Q: What is the minimum clearance distance from the aircraft during rotors-turning
operations?
A: As defined by company policy; never approach without pilot acknowledgment.
40. Q: What is the proper approach angle to a helicopter?
A: From the front, in pilot’s line of sight.
SECTION 5 – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
41. Q: Who leads emergency procedures in flight?
A: The pilot.
42. Q: What should medical crew do during an in-flight emergency?
A: Follow pilot commands, secure equipment, and remain seated unless instructed.
43. Q: What is the first action in an engine-out emergency?
A: Pilot transitions to autorotation.
44. Q: What headset phrase indicates a critical emergency?
A: “Emergency, emergency, emergency.”
45. Q: What is the crew’s responsibility during a precautionary landing?
A: Assist with communications and patient safety.
46. Q: What is the correct fire emergency response?
A: Land immediately and evacuate away from aircraft.
47. Q: What is the first priority after an emergency landing?
A: Account for all crew and patient safety.
48. Q: What is ditching?
A: Emergency landing in water.
49. Q: What must crew know about emergency exits?
A: Location, operation, and backup release mechanisms.
50. Q: What is the procedure for tail-rotor failure?
A: Follow the pilot’s emergency procedures immediately.
SECTION 6 – PATIENT CARE & MEDICAL OPERATIONS
100 Structured Questions & Answers
SECTION 1 – GENERAL OPERATIONS (GOM)
1. Q: What is the primary mission of Air Evac Lifeteam?
A: To provide safe, rapid, high-quality air medical transport to critically ill or injured patients.
2. Q: What is the highest organizational priority according to the GOM?
A: Safety of patients, crew, and aircraft.
3. Q: Who has the ultimate authority for flight decisions?
A: The Pilot in Command (PIC).
4. Q: What is the minimum acceptable visibility for VFR operations under AE Lifeteam GOM?
A: Varies by class of airspace, but must meet or exceed company and FAA minimums—
whichever is more restrictive.
5. Q: What is the crew’s responsibility regarding company policies?
A: All crew must know, follow, and enforce GOM policies.
6. Q: What should be done if there is a conflict between company procedures and FAA
regulations?
A: Follow the more restrictive rule.
7. Q: What document governs all flight operations?
A: The General Operations Manual (GOM).
8. Q: Who may cancel a flight?
A: Any crew member, at any time, for any safety concern.
9. Q: What is a "safety-first" go/no-go decision?
A: A decision based solely on safety, not on mission pressure or operational demands.
10. Q: Are crew members allowed to self-dispatch?
A: No. All missions must follow proper communications and dispatch protocols.
SECTION 2 – CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (CRM)
,11. Q: What is the purpose of CRM?
A: To enhance safety through effective communication, teamwork, and decision-making.
12. Q: What is “challenge and response”?
A: A safety technique where crew question unclear or unsafe actions until resolved.
13. Q: What is the "two-challenge rule"?
A: If a concern is raised twice without correction, escalate or intervene immediately.
14. Q: Define “situational awareness.”
A: The continuous perception of environmental elements and their meaning.
15. Q: What is "task saturation"?
A: When workload exceeds a person’s ability to process information effectively.
16. Q: What should a medical crew member do if they notice weather deteriorating?
A: Immediately inform the pilot.
17. Q: What does AMRM stand for?
A: Air Medical Resource Management.
18. Q: What is “confirmation bias”?
A: Ignoring conflicting information to support a preferred decision.
19. Q: How should conflict in the cockpit be handled?
A: Open communication focused on safety, using CRM principles.
20. Q: What is a red-flag statement?
A: A verbal cue indicating concern about safety (e.g., “I’m uncomfortable with this.”)
SECTION 3 – WEATHER & FLIGHT RISK ASSESSMENT
21. Q: What is the purpose of the Flight Risk Assessment Tool (FRAT)?
A: To quantify mission risk and ensure risks are mitigated before flight.
22. Q: When must the FRAT be completed?
A: Before each mission and updated if conditions change.
23. Q: What must be done if the FRAT score exceeds limits?
A: Additional mitigation applied or mission declined.
24. Q: What is the minimum ceiling allowed for night VFR flight (company policy may vary)?
A: Typically higher than FAA minimums—company standard applies.
,25. Q: What is the pilot required to check for weather?
A: METARs, TAFs, forecasts, radar, NOTAMS, and local conditions.
26. Q: What is “inadvertent IMC”?
A: Entering instrument meteorological conditions when not planned.
27. Q: What is the proper response to inadvertent IMC?
A: Initiate the company’s IIMC escape procedure immediately.
28. Q: Can weather minimums be reduced for urgency?
A: No, never.
29. Q: When should weather be re-evaluated?
A: Continuously throughout the mission.
30. Q: What conditions automatically require cancellation?
A: Below-minimum weather, unsafe winds, or pilot judgement.
SECTION 4 – AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS
31. Q: Who ensures the aircraft is airworthy before flight?
A: The Pilot in Command.
32. Q: What documents must be onboard the aircraft?
A: Airworthiness certificate, registration, operating limitations, and weight & balance.
33. Q: Define “sterile cockpit.”
A: No unnecessary conversation during critical phases of flight.
34. Q: When does sterile cockpit apply?
A: Takeoff, landing, approach, and any high-workload period.
35. Q: Who is responsible for securing all interior equipment before takeoff?
A: Medical crew and pilot collaboratively.
36. Q: What is required before hot-loading or hot-unloading patients?
A: Pilot confirmation and clear communication.
37. Q: What are the crew’s actions during an engine start?
A: Maintain a sterile environment and observe for hazards.
38. Q: What is the procedure if a landing zone (LZ) becomes unsafe?
A: Abort and reassess or select another LZ.
, 39. Q: What is the minimum clearance distance from the aircraft during rotors-turning
operations?
A: As defined by company policy; never approach without pilot acknowledgment.
40. Q: What is the proper approach angle to a helicopter?
A: From the front, in pilot’s line of sight.
SECTION 5 – EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
41. Q: Who leads emergency procedures in flight?
A: The pilot.
42. Q: What should medical crew do during an in-flight emergency?
A: Follow pilot commands, secure equipment, and remain seated unless instructed.
43. Q: What is the first action in an engine-out emergency?
A: Pilot transitions to autorotation.
44. Q: What headset phrase indicates a critical emergency?
A: “Emergency, emergency, emergency.”
45. Q: What is the crew’s responsibility during a precautionary landing?
A: Assist with communications and patient safety.
46. Q: What is the correct fire emergency response?
A: Land immediately and evacuate away from aircraft.
47. Q: What is the first priority after an emergency landing?
A: Account for all crew and patient safety.
48. Q: What is ditching?
A: Emergency landing in water.
49. Q: What must crew know about emergency exits?
A: Location, operation, and backup release mechanisms.
50. Q: What is the procedure for tail-rotor failure?
A: Follow the pilot’s emergency procedures immediately.
SECTION 6 – PATIENT CARE & MEDICAL OPERATIONS
