NURS 5433 FINAL EXAM FALL 2026 THE UNIVERSITY
OF TEXAS AT ARLINGTON UTA FAMILY II COMPLETE
100 QUESTION AND ANSWER| BRAND NEW PDF!!!
1. A 68-year-old patient with chronic heart failure presents with dyspnea,
orthopnea, and edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer prescribed diuretic
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Obtain daily weight
D. Provide a low-sodium diet
Answer: A. Administer prescribed diuretic
Rationale: The patient exhibits symptoms of fluid overload. Diuretics reduce preload and relieve
pulmonary congestion. While monitoring weight and diet are important, immediate
intervention is needed to manage acute symptoms.
2. A patient receiving warfarin reports dark stools. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Document the finding
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Reassure the patient it is normal
D. Check the patient’s INR
Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Rationale: Dark stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of
warfarin. Immediate notification allows for prompt intervention. Checking INR is important but
not the immediate priority over potential bleeding.
3. Which lab result indicates a patient is at risk for infection?
A. WBC 12,000/mm³
B. Neutrophils 20%
,C. Platelets 250,000/mm³
D. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Answer: B. Neutrophils 20%
Rationale: Neutropenia (< 1,500/mm³) or a low percentage of neutrophils increases
susceptibility to infection. A WBC count of 12,000/mm³ may indicate inflammation or infection
but neutropenia is more specific for infection risk.
4. A patient with COPD is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will keep my oxygen at 2 L/min unless my provider changes it.”
B. “I can smoke as long as I am careful with oxygen tubing.”
C. “I will clean my cannula every day.”
D. “I should report increased shortness of breath.”
Answer: B. “I can smoke as long as I am careful with oxygen tubing.”
Rationale: Oxygen is highly flammable. Patients must never smoke while using supplemental
oxygen. The other statements indicate safe oxygen use.
5. Which action demonstrates proper sterile technique when inserting a Foley
catheter?
A. Touching the catheter tip with sterile gloves
B. Keeping the catheter below the bladder level
C. Applying sterile lubricant to the catheter tip
D. Reusing the sterile drape after insertion
Answer: C. Applying sterile lubricant to the catheter tip
Rationale: Sterile lubrication reduces trauma and infection risk. Touching the catheter tip or
reusing drapes compromises sterility. Catheter should be kept below the bladder level to
prevent backflow, but this is not part of insertion technique.
6. A patient with Type 1 diabetes is experiencing confusion, diaphoresis, and
tachycardia. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check the patient’s blood glucose
C. Provide a high-protein snack
D. Call the healthcare provider
, Answer: B. Check the patient’s blood glucose
Rationale: Symptoms suggest hypoglycemia, which is life-threatening if untreated. Confirming
blood glucose allows for safe, targeted intervention, such as administering glucose orally or IV.
7. A patient is prescribed morphine for pain management. Which assessment is
most important before administration?
A. Heart rate
B. Pain intensity
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood pressure
Answer: C. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression. Assessing respiratory
rate before administration ensures patient safety. Pain intensity is important but secondary to
monitoring for adverse effects.
8. Which of the following findings indicates fluid volume overload in a patient
with renal failure?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Hypotension
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Tachycardia with poor perfusion
Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a hallmark of fluid overload. Dry
mucous membranes and hypotension suggest fluid deficit, not overload.
9. A patient is taking furosemide for hypertension. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I will take the medication at night.”
B. “I may need to eat potassium-rich foods.”
C. “I can stop taking it once my blood pressure is normal.”
D. “It is okay if I skip a dose occasionally.”
Answer: B. “I may need to eat potassium-rich foods.”
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Taking the medication at
night may cause nocturia. Stopping or skipping doses can lead to uncontrolled hypertension.
OF TEXAS AT ARLINGTON UTA FAMILY II COMPLETE
100 QUESTION AND ANSWER| BRAND NEW PDF!!!
1. A 68-year-old patient with chronic heart failure presents with dyspnea,
orthopnea, and edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer prescribed diuretic
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Obtain daily weight
D. Provide a low-sodium diet
Answer: A. Administer prescribed diuretic
Rationale: The patient exhibits symptoms of fluid overload. Diuretics reduce preload and relieve
pulmonary congestion. While monitoring weight and diet are important, immediate
intervention is needed to manage acute symptoms.
2. A patient receiving warfarin reports dark stools. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Document the finding
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Reassure the patient it is normal
D. Check the patient’s INR
Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Rationale: Dark stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of
warfarin. Immediate notification allows for prompt intervention. Checking INR is important but
not the immediate priority over potential bleeding.
3. Which lab result indicates a patient is at risk for infection?
A. WBC 12,000/mm³
B. Neutrophils 20%
,C. Platelets 250,000/mm³
D. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Answer: B. Neutrophils 20%
Rationale: Neutropenia (< 1,500/mm³) or a low percentage of neutrophils increases
susceptibility to infection. A WBC count of 12,000/mm³ may indicate inflammation or infection
but neutropenia is more specific for infection risk.
4. A patient with COPD is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will keep my oxygen at 2 L/min unless my provider changes it.”
B. “I can smoke as long as I am careful with oxygen tubing.”
C. “I will clean my cannula every day.”
D. “I should report increased shortness of breath.”
Answer: B. “I can smoke as long as I am careful with oxygen tubing.”
Rationale: Oxygen is highly flammable. Patients must never smoke while using supplemental
oxygen. The other statements indicate safe oxygen use.
5. Which action demonstrates proper sterile technique when inserting a Foley
catheter?
A. Touching the catheter tip with sterile gloves
B. Keeping the catheter below the bladder level
C. Applying sterile lubricant to the catheter tip
D. Reusing the sterile drape after insertion
Answer: C. Applying sterile lubricant to the catheter tip
Rationale: Sterile lubrication reduces trauma and infection risk. Touching the catheter tip or
reusing drapes compromises sterility. Catheter should be kept below the bladder level to
prevent backflow, but this is not part of insertion technique.
6. A patient with Type 1 diabetes is experiencing confusion, diaphoresis, and
tachycardia. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check the patient’s blood glucose
C. Provide a high-protein snack
D. Call the healthcare provider
, Answer: B. Check the patient’s blood glucose
Rationale: Symptoms suggest hypoglycemia, which is life-threatening if untreated. Confirming
blood glucose allows for safe, targeted intervention, such as administering glucose orally or IV.
7. A patient is prescribed morphine for pain management. Which assessment is
most important before administration?
A. Heart rate
B. Pain intensity
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood pressure
Answer: C. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression. Assessing respiratory
rate before administration ensures patient safety. Pain intensity is important but secondary to
monitoring for adverse effects.
8. Which of the following findings indicates fluid volume overload in a patient
with renal failure?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Hypotension
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Tachycardia with poor perfusion
Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a hallmark of fluid overload. Dry
mucous membranes and hypotension suggest fluid deficit, not overload.
9. A patient is taking furosemide for hypertension. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A. “I will take the medication at night.”
B. “I may need to eat potassium-rich foods.”
C. “I can stop taking it once my blood pressure is normal.”
D. “It is okay if I skip a dose occasionally.”
Answer: B. “I may need to eat potassium-rich foods.”
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Taking the medication at
night may cause nocturia. Stopping or skipping doses can lead to uncontrolled hypertension.
