AAPD EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - Answer -plaque on maxillary
anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? -
Answer -age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC
status? - Answer -White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer -1)
Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three
between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with
a bottle containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child
has active white spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer -1) Child
has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on
teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors. - Answer -1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated
drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated
toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4) Child has
dental home/regular dental care
Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - Answer -1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the neural plate.
2) bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - Answer -6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form? - Answer -basal layer of oral epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina? - Answer -tooth buds
At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the
permanent 2nd molar begin initiation? - Answer -1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
Name the components of the tooth bud. - Answer -enamel organ, dental papilla, dental
sac
Name the components of the enamel organ. - Answer -Inner enamel epithelium
(concavity), outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
,The dental papilla forms from ________. - Answer -neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order. - Answer -Bud stage, cap stage, bell
stage, advanced bell stage
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - Answer -males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - Answer -permanent
dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - Answer -maxilla (9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - Answer -
3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd premolar
Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - Answer -Apert's, cleidocranial
dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome,
Orofaciodigital syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down
syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth, cleft palate,
delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - Answer -supernumerary teeth, delayed
development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - Answer -supernumerary teeth, osteomas of
the jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth, midface
hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - Answer -port-wine stains which follow
the trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform
calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular defects,
bleeding and gingival hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth and/or
hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth,
mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar hypoplasia
,Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - Answer -hypodontia, conical crowns,
deficient alveolar ridge
Describe features of achondroplasia - Answer -hypodontia, short stature, frontal
bossing, midface hypoplasia
Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). - Answer -
hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of maxillary sulcus,
premature teeth
Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - Answer -hypodontia, conical crowns,
delayed eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin,
hyperpigmentation
Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - Answer -Hypodontia, midface hypoplasia,
delayed eruption, short stature, eye malformation
Describe features of Seckel syndrome - Answer -hypodontia, microcephaly, midface
hypoplasia, dwarfism, large eyes
Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - Answer -Hypodontia, prominent lips,
microdontia, enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor
Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - Answer -Primary
Describe twinning. - Answer -Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which results in
a supernumerary mirror image tooth.
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - Answer -inner and
outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - Answer -rests of Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________.
- Answer -Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
__________. - Answer -size, proportion, number, twinning
Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - Answer -anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI,
DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to
_____________. - Answer -Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
, What is the cause of taurodontism? - Answer -failure of normal invagination of
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
Name 6 diseases associated with taurodontism. - Answer -Klinefelter syndrome, tricho-
dento-osseous syndrome, Mohr syndrome (aka orofaciodigital syndrome II), ectodermal
dysplasia, Down syndrome, amelogenesis imperfecta type IV
Describe the features of Klinefelter syndrome. - Answer -taurodontism, small cranial
dimension, bimaxillary prognathism, male with extra X chromosome, gynecomastia
Describe the features of tricho-dento-osseous syndrome. - Answer -Dolichocephalic
with frontal bossing, taurodontism, delayed eruption, kinky or coarse hair at birth,
enamel hypoplasia, AI+taurodontism+nail and hair defects
Describe the features of Mohr syndrome. - Answer -Lobed tongue, upper lip/midline
cleft, oligodontia, polydactyly
The most common type of amelogenesis imperfecta is : - Answer -type I- hypoplastic
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is associated with taurodontism? - Answer -AI
type IV with taurodontism (hypomaturation-hypoplastic)
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a defect of what structure? - Answer -Predentin matrix
(normal mantle dentin)
Which type of Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs along with osteogenesis imperfecta? -
Answer -Shields Type I
Describe Shields Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta. - Answer -Occurs with
osteogenesis imperfecta, primary teeth more severely affected, permanent first molars
and central incisors most often affected, amber translucence, periapical radiolucencies
without caries, autosomal dominant, rapid attrition
Describe Shields type II dentinogenesis imperfecta - Answer -no OI, hereditary
opalescent dentin, both primary and permanent dentitions equally affected, periapical
radiolucencies, rapid attrition, pulp chamber obliteration, autosomal dominant
Describe Shields Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta. - Answer -bell-shaped crowns,
"shell teeth", short roots, enlarged pulp chambers, enamel pitting, rare, pulp exposures
What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is the most common? - Answer -OI type I
What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is lethal in the perinatal period? - Answer -OI
type II
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - Answer -plaque on maxillary
anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? -
Answer -age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC
status? - Answer -White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer -1)
Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three
between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with
a bottle containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child
has active white spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Answer -1) Child
has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on
teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors. - Answer -1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated
drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated
toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4) Child has
dental home/regular dental care
Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - Answer -1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the neural plate.
2) bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - Answer -6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form? - Answer -basal layer of oral epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina? - Answer -tooth buds
At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the
permanent 2nd molar begin initiation? - Answer -1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
Name the components of the tooth bud. - Answer -enamel organ, dental papilla, dental
sac
Name the components of the enamel organ. - Answer -Inner enamel epithelium
(concavity), outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
,The dental papilla forms from ________. - Answer -neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order. - Answer -Bud stage, cap stage, bell
stage, advanced bell stage
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - Answer -males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - Answer -permanent
dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - Answer -maxilla (9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - Answer -
3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd premolar
Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - Answer -Apert's, cleidocranial
dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome,
Orofaciodigital syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down
syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth, cleft palate,
delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - Answer -supernumerary teeth, delayed
development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - Answer -supernumerary teeth, osteomas of
the jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth, midface
hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - Answer -port-wine stains which follow
the trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform
calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular defects,
bleeding and gingival hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth and/or
hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - Answer -supernumerary teeth,
mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar hypoplasia
,Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - Answer -hypodontia, conical crowns,
deficient alveolar ridge
Describe features of achondroplasia - Answer -hypodontia, short stature, frontal
bossing, midface hypoplasia
Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). - Answer -
hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of maxillary sulcus,
premature teeth
Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - Answer -hypodontia, conical crowns,
delayed eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin,
hyperpigmentation
Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - Answer -Hypodontia, midface hypoplasia,
delayed eruption, short stature, eye malformation
Describe features of Seckel syndrome - Answer -hypodontia, microcephaly, midface
hypoplasia, dwarfism, large eyes
Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - Answer -Hypodontia, prominent lips,
microdontia, enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor
Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - Answer -Primary
Describe twinning. - Answer -Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which results in
a supernumerary mirror image tooth.
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - Answer -inner and
outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - Answer -rests of Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________.
- Answer -Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
__________. - Answer -size, proportion, number, twinning
Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - Answer -anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI,
DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to
_____________. - Answer -Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
, What is the cause of taurodontism? - Answer -failure of normal invagination of
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
Name 6 diseases associated with taurodontism. - Answer -Klinefelter syndrome, tricho-
dento-osseous syndrome, Mohr syndrome (aka orofaciodigital syndrome II), ectodermal
dysplasia, Down syndrome, amelogenesis imperfecta type IV
Describe the features of Klinefelter syndrome. - Answer -taurodontism, small cranial
dimension, bimaxillary prognathism, male with extra X chromosome, gynecomastia
Describe the features of tricho-dento-osseous syndrome. - Answer -Dolichocephalic
with frontal bossing, taurodontism, delayed eruption, kinky or coarse hair at birth,
enamel hypoplasia, AI+taurodontism+nail and hair defects
Describe the features of Mohr syndrome. - Answer -Lobed tongue, upper lip/midline
cleft, oligodontia, polydactyly
The most common type of amelogenesis imperfecta is : - Answer -type I- hypoplastic
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is associated with taurodontism? - Answer -AI
type IV with taurodontism (hypomaturation-hypoplastic)
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a defect of what structure? - Answer -Predentin matrix
(normal mantle dentin)
Which type of Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs along with osteogenesis imperfecta? -
Answer -Shields Type I
Describe Shields Type I dentinogenesis imperfecta. - Answer -Occurs with
osteogenesis imperfecta, primary teeth more severely affected, permanent first molars
and central incisors most often affected, amber translucence, periapical radiolucencies
without caries, autosomal dominant, rapid attrition
Describe Shields type II dentinogenesis imperfecta - Answer -no OI, hereditary
opalescent dentin, both primary and permanent dentitions equally affected, periapical
radiolucencies, rapid attrition, pulp chamber obliteration, autosomal dominant
Describe Shields Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta. - Answer -bell-shaped crowns,
"shell teeth", short roots, enlarged pulp chambers, enamel pitting, rare, pulp exposures
What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is the most common? - Answer -OI type I
What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is lethal in the perinatal period? - Answer -OI
type II
