ITLS ADVANCED POST TEST 9TH ED. – COMPLETE STUDY
GUIDE & SCENARIO REVIEW (2026 EDITION)
ITLS Advanced Post Test 9th Edition - Practice Questions
1. The primary goal of the ITLS primary assessment is to:
A. Obtain a full set of vital signs.
B. Identify and manage immediate life threats.
C. Splint all suspected fractures.
D. Perform a detailed head-to-toe exam.
Answer: B. Identify and manage immediate life threats. ✓
2. During the ITLS secondary assessment, the "T" in the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic stands for:
A. Tachycardia
B. Tenderness
C. Trauma
D. Temperature
Answer: B. Tenderness ✓
3. A patient with a flail chest segment is at greatest risk for:
A. Cardiac tamponade.
B. Tension pneumothorax.
C. Underlying pulmonary contusion.
D. Aortic dissection.
Answer: C. Underlying pulmonary contusion. ✓
4. The most reliable sign of a tension pneumothorax is:
A. Tracheal deviation.
B. Unilateral absence of breath sounds.
C. Hypotension and jugular venous distention.
D. Severe respiratory distress.
Answer: C. Hypotension and jugular venous distention. ✓
5. Pericardiocentesis is indicated for a patient with penetrating trauma to the chest who
presents with:
A. Diminished breath sounds and hyperresonance.
B. Beck's triad and pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
C. Hemoptysis and subcutaneous emphysema.
,D. Paradoxical chest wall movement and tachypnea.
Answer: B. Beck's triad and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). ✓
6. The "Golden Period" following traumatic injury primarily refers to the time during which:
A. Surgical intervention has the highest chance of preventing death from hemorrhage.
B. Neurological recovery from spinal cord injury is still possible.
C. Antibiotics are most effective at preventing infection.
D. Field interventions can stabilize a patient indefinitely.
Answer: A. Surgical intervention has the highest chance of preventing death from
hemorrhage. ✓
7. In a patient with a significant head injury (GCS < 9), the single most important prehospital
intervention is:
A. Administration of IV Mannitol.
B. Rapid sequence intubation (RSI).
C. Prevention of hypoxia and hypotension.
D. Application of a cervical collar.
Answer: C. Prevention of hypoxia and hypotension. ✓
8. A patient with an open skull fracture and exposed brain tissue should be managed by:
A. Gently replacing the brain matter into the cranial vault.
B. Applying a loose, dry sterile dressing.
C. Applying firm pressure to control bleeding.
D. Irrigating the wound with sterile saline to remove debris.
Answer: B. Applying a loose, dry sterile dressing. ✓
9. The Cushing's Triad of increased intracranial pressure includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Bradycardia.
B. Hypertension.
C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. Headache.
Answer: D. Headache. ✓
10. When logrolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the team leader should be
positioned at the:
A. Head to maintain in-line stabilization.
B. Torso to direct the roll.
C. Feet to pull the patient.
D. Side to lift the pelvis.
Answer: A. Head to maintain in-line stabilization. ✓
,11. The recommended initial fluid bolus for an adult trauma patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. 200 mL of normal saline.
B. 1 L of lactated Ringer's.
C. 2 L of normal saline.
D. 20 mL/kg of normal saline.
Answer: B. 1 L of lactated Ringer's. ✓
12. A patient with a pelvic fracture should be stabilized in the field with a:
A. Long spine board.
B. Sager traction splint.
C. Commercial pelvic binder.
D. Vacuum mattress.
Answer: C. Commercial pelvic binder. ✓
13. The most common cause of death in a patient with a pelvic fracture is:
A. Sepsis.
B. Associated head injury.
C. Exsanguination.
D. Fat embolism.
Answer: C. Exsanguination. ✓
14. A positive Kehr's sign (left shoulder pain) is most indicative of injury to which organ?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
Answer: B. Spleen ✓
15. During the rapid trauma assessment, palpation of the abdomen that reveals a pulsatile
mass suggests:
A. Hepatic laceration.
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm.
C. Splenic rupture.
D. Diaphragmatic hernia.
Answer: B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm. ✓
16. The use of a pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) is primarily indicated for which of the
following?
A. Isolated femoral shaft fracture
B. Uncontrolled hypotension due to pelvic fracture
, C. Penetrating abdominal trauma with evisceration
D. Traumatic brain injury with hypotension
Answer: B. Uncontrolled hypotension due to pelvic fracture ✓
17. When managing an extremity amputation, the amputated part should be:
A. Kept on ice.
B. Placed in a plastic bag and then on ice.
C. Wrapped in a sterile, moist saline dressing and kept cool.
D. Immersed in sterile water or saline.
Answer: C. Wrapped in a sterile, moist saline dressing and kept cool. ✓
18. Compartment syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pallor.
B. Pain.
C. Paresthesia.
D. Paralysis.
Answer: A. Pallor. ✓
19. The most appropriate method for stabilizing a suspected mid-shaft femur fracture is the:
A. Long spine board.
B. Sager traction splint.
C. Vacuum splint.
D. Pillow splint.
Answer: B. Sager traction splint. ✓
20. A burn that appears pearly white or charred and is painless is classified as:
A. Superficial.
B. Partial-thickness.
C. Full-thickness.
D. Subdermal.
Answer: C. Full-thickness. ✓
21. The Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation in burn patients calculates the volume of fluid
to be administered:
A. Over the first 12 hours.
B. Over the first 24 hours.
C. In the first 8 hours.
D. As a maintenance rate.
Answer: B. Over the first 24 hours. ✓
GUIDE & SCENARIO REVIEW (2026 EDITION)
ITLS Advanced Post Test 9th Edition - Practice Questions
1. The primary goal of the ITLS primary assessment is to:
A. Obtain a full set of vital signs.
B. Identify and manage immediate life threats.
C. Splint all suspected fractures.
D. Perform a detailed head-to-toe exam.
Answer: B. Identify and manage immediate life threats. ✓
2. During the ITLS secondary assessment, the "T" in the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic stands for:
A. Tachycardia
B. Tenderness
C. Trauma
D. Temperature
Answer: B. Tenderness ✓
3. A patient with a flail chest segment is at greatest risk for:
A. Cardiac tamponade.
B. Tension pneumothorax.
C. Underlying pulmonary contusion.
D. Aortic dissection.
Answer: C. Underlying pulmonary contusion. ✓
4. The most reliable sign of a tension pneumothorax is:
A. Tracheal deviation.
B. Unilateral absence of breath sounds.
C. Hypotension and jugular venous distention.
D. Severe respiratory distress.
Answer: C. Hypotension and jugular venous distention. ✓
5. Pericardiocentesis is indicated for a patient with penetrating trauma to the chest who
presents with:
A. Diminished breath sounds and hyperresonance.
B. Beck's triad and pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
C. Hemoptysis and subcutaneous emphysema.
,D. Paradoxical chest wall movement and tachypnea.
Answer: B. Beck's triad and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). ✓
6. The "Golden Period" following traumatic injury primarily refers to the time during which:
A. Surgical intervention has the highest chance of preventing death from hemorrhage.
B. Neurological recovery from spinal cord injury is still possible.
C. Antibiotics are most effective at preventing infection.
D. Field interventions can stabilize a patient indefinitely.
Answer: A. Surgical intervention has the highest chance of preventing death from
hemorrhage. ✓
7. In a patient with a significant head injury (GCS < 9), the single most important prehospital
intervention is:
A. Administration of IV Mannitol.
B. Rapid sequence intubation (RSI).
C. Prevention of hypoxia and hypotension.
D. Application of a cervical collar.
Answer: C. Prevention of hypoxia and hypotension. ✓
8. A patient with an open skull fracture and exposed brain tissue should be managed by:
A. Gently replacing the brain matter into the cranial vault.
B. Applying a loose, dry sterile dressing.
C. Applying firm pressure to control bleeding.
D. Irrigating the wound with sterile saline to remove debris.
Answer: B. Applying a loose, dry sterile dressing. ✓
9. The Cushing's Triad of increased intracranial pressure includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Bradycardia.
B. Hypertension.
C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. Headache.
Answer: D. Headache. ✓
10. When logrolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the team leader should be
positioned at the:
A. Head to maintain in-line stabilization.
B. Torso to direct the roll.
C. Feet to pull the patient.
D. Side to lift the pelvis.
Answer: A. Head to maintain in-line stabilization. ✓
,11. The recommended initial fluid bolus for an adult trauma patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. 200 mL of normal saline.
B. 1 L of lactated Ringer's.
C. 2 L of normal saline.
D. 20 mL/kg of normal saline.
Answer: B. 1 L of lactated Ringer's. ✓
12. A patient with a pelvic fracture should be stabilized in the field with a:
A. Long spine board.
B. Sager traction splint.
C. Commercial pelvic binder.
D. Vacuum mattress.
Answer: C. Commercial pelvic binder. ✓
13. The most common cause of death in a patient with a pelvic fracture is:
A. Sepsis.
B. Associated head injury.
C. Exsanguination.
D. Fat embolism.
Answer: C. Exsanguination. ✓
14. A positive Kehr's sign (left shoulder pain) is most indicative of injury to which organ?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
Answer: B. Spleen ✓
15. During the rapid trauma assessment, palpation of the abdomen that reveals a pulsatile
mass suggests:
A. Hepatic laceration.
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm.
C. Splenic rupture.
D. Diaphragmatic hernia.
Answer: B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm. ✓
16. The use of a pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) is primarily indicated for which of the
following?
A. Isolated femoral shaft fracture
B. Uncontrolled hypotension due to pelvic fracture
, C. Penetrating abdominal trauma with evisceration
D. Traumatic brain injury with hypotension
Answer: B. Uncontrolled hypotension due to pelvic fracture ✓
17. When managing an extremity amputation, the amputated part should be:
A. Kept on ice.
B. Placed in a plastic bag and then on ice.
C. Wrapped in a sterile, moist saline dressing and kept cool.
D. Immersed in sterile water or saline.
Answer: C. Wrapped in a sterile, moist saline dressing and kept cool. ✓
18. Compartment syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Pallor.
B. Pain.
C. Paresthesia.
D. Paralysis.
Answer: A. Pallor. ✓
19. The most appropriate method for stabilizing a suspected mid-shaft femur fracture is the:
A. Long spine board.
B. Sager traction splint.
C. Vacuum splint.
D. Pillow splint.
Answer: B. Sager traction splint. ✓
20. A burn that appears pearly white or charred and is painless is classified as:
A. Superficial.
B. Partial-thickness.
C. Full-thickness.
D. Subdermal.
Answer: C. Full-thickness. ✓
21. The Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation in burn patients calculates the volume of fluid
to be administered:
A. Over the first 12 hours.
B. Over the first 24 hours.
C. In the first 8 hours.
D. As a maintenance rate.
Answer: B. Over the first 24 hours. ✓
