ATI Medical-Surgical Nursing – 2025–2026
Study Guide Updated med-surg foundations,
chronic/acute conditions, and NGN clinical
decision-making.
1. A nurse is reviewing the principles of medical asepsis. Which action by a nursing student
requires intervention?
A) Placing a used syringe on the bedside table.
B) Holding sterile objects above the waist.
C) Keeping the sterile field within view.
D) Pouring solution into a sterile bowl without touching the rim.
Answer: A) Placing a used syringe on the bedside table. ✓
2. The concept of "clinical judgment" in NGN focuses on:
A) Memorizing laboratory values.
B) Recalling facts about disease processes.
C) Applying knowledge to make decisions at the point of care. ✓
D) Following physician orders without question.
3. When delegating a task to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), the nurse is responsible
for:
A) Completing the task if the UAP is busy.
B) Supervising and evaluating the completion of the task. ✓
C) Providing a detailed pathophysiological explanation for the task.
D) Only delegating bed-making and vital signs.
4. A patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) is placed on Contact Precautions. Which action
is most appropriate?
A) Wearing a gown and gloves when entering the room. ✓
B) Placing the patient in a negative pressure room.
C) Wearing an N95 respirator for all care.
D) Using alcohol-based hand sanitizer for hand hygiene.
5. The primary purpose of the nursing process step "Evaluation" is to:
A) Determine if patient goals and outcomes have been met. ✓
B) Document the patient's response to medication.
,C) Develop the initial plan of care.
D) Assess the patient's vital signs.
6. A patient is scheduled for a procedure with informed consent. The nurse's primary role is
to:
A) Obtain the signed consent form from the patient.
B) Explain the risks and benefits in detail.
C) Witness the patient's signature and confirm understanding. ✓
D) Decide if the patient is mentally competent to consent.
7. Which finding is an example of a subjective data (symptom)?
A) Blood pressure 150/92 mmHg.
B) A 3 cm wound on the left foot.
C) Patient reporting "I feel nauseous." ✓
D) Oxygen saturation of 88%.
8. A patient has a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order. This means:
A) Only comfort measures are provided, and no life-saving interventions are initiated. ✓
B) All treatments, including antibiotics, must be stopped.
C) The patient cannot receive any surgical procedures.
D) The nurse should not call a rapid response.
9. When using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation)
communication tool, the "A" stands for:
A) Action plan.
B) Assessment of the current situation. ✓
C) Admitting diagnosis.
D) Allergies.
10. A key principle of patient education is to:
A) Provide all information at once to ensure comprehension.
B) Assess the patient's readiness to learn. ✓
C) Use complex medical terminology to ensure accuracy.
D) Focus only on verbal instruction.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication. The most important action is
to:
A) Have another nurse double-check the dosage and patient. ✓
B) Administer it as quickly as possible.
,C) Ask the patient if they have taken it before.
D) Document it after the next set of vital signs.
12. The "R" in the I-SBAR-R communication tool stands for:
A) Review
B) Response ✓
C) Reassess
D) Readback
13. Which vital sign change is the earliest indicator of shock?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Increased heart rate. ✓
C) Decreased oxygen saturation.
D) Increased respiratory rate.
14. A patient is experiencing a transfusion reaction. The nurse's first action should be to:
A) Notify the physician.
B) Slow the infusion rate and assess the patient.
C) Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline. ✓
D) Administer prescribed antihistamines.
15. The purpose of a "time-out" before a surgical procedure is to:
A) Allow the surgical team to rest.
B) Confirm the correct patient, procedure, and site. ✓
C) Ensure the anesthesia is working.
D) Count all sponges and instruments.
16. When caring for a patient with a latex allergy, the nurse should be vigilant about which
common hospital item?
A) Glass thermometers.
B) Plastic IV bags.
C) Latex gloves and blood pressure cuffs. ✓
D) Metal bedpans.
17. A patient with dysphagia is at highest risk for:
A) Constipation.
B) Aspiration pneumonia. ✓
C) Urinary tract infection.
D) Pressure injuries.
, 18. Which action best demonstrates the principle of therapeutic communication?
A) Offering advice to solve the patient's problem.
B) Using open-ended questions to encourage expression. ✓
C) Changing the subject when the patient becomes emotional.
D) Telling the patient "Everything will be fine."
19. The Braden Scale is used to assess a patient's risk for:
A) Falls.
B) Malnutrition.
C) Pressure injuries. ✓
D) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
20. A nurse is calculating a drip rate for an IV medication. This is an example of which core
competency for nurses?
A) Safety ✓
B) Communication
C) Collaboration
D) Leadership
21. A patient's lab result shows a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. The nurse should anticipate:
A) Administering IV potassium.
B) Restricting dietary potassium and preparing for possible ECG changes. ✓
C) Encouraging bananas and oranges.
D) Assessing for Trousseau's sign.
22. The primary goal of palliative care is to:
A) Cure the underlying disease.
B) Provide comfort and improve quality of life, regardless of prognosis. ✓
C) Only provide care in the last 48 hours of life.
D) Replace hospice care.
23. A cognitively impaired patient is trying to get out of bed. The least restrictive intervention
is to:
A) Apply wrist restraints.
B) Use a bed alarm. ✓
C) Administer a sedative.
D) Place the patient in a locked chair.
24. When documenting in a patient's chart, the nurse should:
A) Use subjective opinions about the patient's non-compliance.
Study Guide Updated med-surg foundations,
chronic/acute conditions, and NGN clinical
decision-making.
1. A nurse is reviewing the principles of medical asepsis. Which action by a nursing student
requires intervention?
A) Placing a used syringe on the bedside table.
B) Holding sterile objects above the waist.
C) Keeping the sterile field within view.
D) Pouring solution into a sterile bowl without touching the rim.
Answer: A) Placing a used syringe on the bedside table. ✓
2. The concept of "clinical judgment" in NGN focuses on:
A) Memorizing laboratory values.
B) Recalling facts about disease processes.
C) Applying knowledge to make decisions at the point of care. ✓
D) Following physician orders without question.
3. When delegating a task to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), the nurse is responsible
for:
A) Completing the task if the UAP is busy.
B) Supervising and evaluating the completion of the task. ✓
C) Providing a detailed pathophysiological explanation for the task.
D) Only delegating bed-making and vital signs.
4. A patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) is placed on Contact Precautions. Which action
is most appropriate?
A) Wearing a gown and gloves when entering the room. ✓
B) Placing the patient in a negative pressure room.
C) Wearing an N95 respirator for all care.
D) Using alcohol-based hand sanitizer for hand hygiene.
5. The primary purpose of the nursing process step "Evaluation" is to:
A) Determine if patient goals and outcomes have been met. ✓
B) Document the patient's response to medication.
,C) Develop the initial plan of care.
D) Assess the patient's vital signs.
6. A patient is scheduled for a procedure with informed consent. The nurse's primary role is
to:
A) Obtain the signed consent form from the patient.
B) Explain the risks and benefits in detail.
C) Witness the patient's signature and confirm understanding. ✓
D) Decide if the patient is mentally competent to consent.
7. Which finding is an example of a subjective data (symptom)?
A) Blood pressure 150/92 mmHg.
B) A 3 cm wound on the left foot.
C) Patient reporting "I feel nauseous." ✓
D) Oxygen saturation of 88%.
8. A patient has a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order. This means:
A) Only comfort measures are provided, and no life-saving interventions are initiated. ✓
B) All treatments, including antibiotics, must be stopped.
C) The patient cannot receive any surgical procedures.
D) The nurse should not call a rapid response.
9. When using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation)
communication tool, the "A" stands for:
A) Action plan.
B) Assessment of the current situation. ✓
C) Admitting diagnosis.
D) Allergies.
10. A key principle of patient education is to:
A) Provide all information at once to ensure comprehension.
B) Assess the patient's readiness to learn. ✓
C) Use complex medical terminology to ensure accuracy.
D) Focus only on verbal instruction.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication. The most important action is
to:
A) Have another nurse double-check the dosage and patient. ✓
B) Administer it as quickly as possible.
,C) Ask the patient if they have taken it before.
D) Document it after the next set of vital signs.
12. The "R" in the I-SBAR-R communication tool stands for:
A) Review
B) Response ✓
C) Reassess
D) Readback
13. Which vital sign change is the earliest indicator of shock?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Increased heart rate. ✓
C) Decreased oxygen saturation.
D) Increased respiratory rate.
14. A patient is experiencing a transfusion reaction. The nurse's first action should be to:
A) Notify the physician.
B) Slow the infusion rate and assess the patient.
C) Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline. ✓
D) Administer prescribed antihistamines.
15. The purpose of a "time-out" before a surgical procedure is to:
A) Allow the surgical team to rest.
B) Confirm the correct patient, procedure, and site. ✓
C) Ensure the anesthesia is working.
D) Count all sponges and instruments.
16. When caring for a patient with a latex allergy, the nurse should be vigilant about which
common hospital item?
A) Glass thermometers.
B) Plastic IV bags.
C) Latex gloves and blood pressure cuffs. ✓
D) Metal bedpans.
17. A patient with dysphagia is at highest risk for:
A) Constipation.
B) Aspiration pneumonia. ✓
C) Urinary tract infection.
D) Pressure injuries.
, 18. Which action best demonstrates the principle of therapeutic communication?
A) Offering advice to solve the patient's problem.
B) Using open-ended questions to encourage expression. ✓
C) Changing the subject when the patient becomes emotional.
D) Telling the patient "Everything will be fine."
19. The Braden Scale is used to assess a patient's risk for:
A) Falls.
B) Malnutrition.
C) Pressure injuries. ✓
D) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
20. A nurse is calculating a drip rate for an IV medication. This is an example of which core
competency for nurses?
A) Safety ✓
B) Communication
C) Collaboration
D) Leadership
21. A patient's lab result shows a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. The nurse should anticipate:
A) Administering IV potassium.
B) Restricting dietary potassium and preparing for possible ECG changes. ✓
C) Encouraging bananas and oranges.
D) Assessing for Trousseau's sign.
22. The primary goal of palliative care is to:
A) Cure the underlying disease.
B) Provide comfort and improve quality of life, regardless of prognosis. ✓
C) Only provide care in the last 48 hours of life.
D) Replace hospice care.
23. A cognitively impaired patient is trying to get out of bed. The least restrictive intervention
is to:
A) Apply wrist restraints.
B) Use a bed alarm. ✓
C) Administer a sedative.
D) Place the patient in a locked chair.
24. When documenting in a patient's chart, the nurse should:
A) Use subjective opinions about the patient's non-compliance.
