NUR 524 EXAM 3 | ALL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ |
PROFESSOR VERIFIED | LATEST VERSION 2025
Save
Terms in this set (180)
A 14-year-old boy Acute glomerulonephritis
presents with symptoms of
fatigue and oliguria with Acute glomerulonephritis can occur 1-3 weeks after a
cola-colored urine, streptococcal infection. The reaction that occurs as a
following streptococcal result of streptococcal infection is the result of an
pharyngitis two weeks abnormal immunologic response, resulting in damage
ago. Physical examination to the glomeruli. Symptoms include hematuria, cola-
reveals elevated blood colored urine, oliguria, hypertension, and edema of
pressure and swelling in the face and extremities. Urinalysis reveals red blood
the hands and feet. cells, mild proteinuria, and red blood cell casts.
Urinalysis shows Pediatric patients usually have depressed C3
proteinuria and hematuria complement levels. In adults, elevation of creatinine
with red blood cell casts. levels is more common. Management of
What is the most likely postinfectious glomerulonephritis is supportive, with
diagnosis? water and salt restriction. Calcium channel blockers or
Acute glomerulonephritis ACE inhibitors may be used in cases of severe
Acute pyelonephritis hypertension. More than 90% of children achieve full
Acute tubular necrosis recovery; complete remission in adults is 26-56%,
Initial onset of diabetes depending on age and other comorbidities.
mellitus
,A 23-year-old woman Frovatriptan
presents to the clinic with
a history of debilitating, Frovatriptan and naratriptan are two long-acting
unilateral headaches that triptans that have been found to be effective in
only occur shortly before preventing menstrual migraine if taken around-the-
her period and take her clock starting two days before menses and continuing
several days to recover. for a total of five to six days. Menstrual migraines are
Which one of the migraine headaches that occur exclusively near the
following triptans has time of menses. Triptans are drugs specific to migraine
been found to be treatment and bind to serotonergic receptors. They
effective in preventing are considered first-line treatment for moderate to
these kinds of headaches? severe migraines or for mild-to-moderate migraine
Almotriptan headaches that have failed other analgesics. Triptans
Frovatriptan have vasoconstrictive properties so their use is
Rizatriptan contraindicated in those with ischemic heart disease,
Sumatriptan stroke, uncontrolled hypertension, or basilar migraine
,A 55-year-old woman with Order a CBC
restless legs syndrome
presents with worsening Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized
leg symptoms described by sensory disturbances and an irresistible urge to
as crawling and fidgeting move the legs during periods of rest. Patients will
over the past 4 weeks. Her often report disturbed sleep patterns and daytime
symptoms have been sleepiness. Certain conditions can predispose
interfering with her quality individuals to developing the syndrome, such as
of sleep. When asked family history of restless legs syndrome, Parkinson
about medications, she disease, pregnancy, iron deficiency anemia, or
reports only taking diabetic peripheral neuropathy
pramipexole 0.5 mg
(normal dose range: 0.125-
0.5 mg) in the evenings.
Which of the following is
the most appropriate next
step in management?
Discontinue pramipexole
and start gabapentin
Offer reassurance and
recommend a melatonin
supplement at bedtime
Order a CBC
Refer to neurology
, A 42-year-old woman Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with and
presents to the office with without contrast
double vision and eye
pain. She reports these The first test to order in the above patient who is
symptoms started 4 days suspected of having multiple sclerosis (MS) would be
ago, and she experienced a contrast-enhanced MRI of the brain. She is
a similar episode around 3 presenting with what appears to be optic neuritis
months ago. She reports along with examination findings of internuclear
pain and blurring of vision ophthalmoplegia
in her left eye. She has no
significant past medical
history and takes no
medications. On physical
examination, her vital signs
are normal. A focused
neurologic examination
reveals that the patient
cannot fully adduct her
left eye while at the same
time you notice nystagmus
on abduction of the right
eye. There is dysmetria
with finger-nose testing in
the right arm. What would
be the first test to order
on this patient based on
the suspected diagnosis?
Cerebrospinal fluid
analysis for oligoclonal
bands
Computed tomography of
the brain with and without
contrast
Magnetic resonance
imaging of the brain with
and without contrast
Visual evoked potentials
CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ |
PROFESSOR VERIFIED | LATEST VERSION 2025
Save
Terms in this set (180)
A 14-year-old boy Acute glomerulonephritis
presents with symptoms of
fatigue and oliguria with Acute glomerulonephritis can occur 1-3 weeks after a
cola-colored urine, streptococcal infection. The reaction that occurs as a
following streptococcal result of streptococcal infection is the result of an
pharyngitis two weeks abnormal immunologic response, resulting in damage
ago. Physical examination to the glomeruli. Symptoms include hematuria, cola-
reveals elevated blood colored urine, oliguria, hypertension, and edema of
pressure and swelling in the face and extremities. Urinalysis reveals red blood
the hands and feet. cells, mild proteinuria, and red blood cell casts.
Urinalysis shows Pediatric patients usually have depressed C3
proteinuria and hematuria complement levels. In adults, elevation of creatinine
with red blood cell casts. levels is more common. Management of
What is the most likely postinfectious glomerulonephritis is supportive, with
diagnosis? water and salt restriction. Calcium channel blockers or
Acute glomerulonephritis ACE inhibitors may be used in cases of severe
Acute pyelonephritis hypertension. More than 90% of children achieve full
Acute tubular necrosis recovery; complete remission in adults is 26-56%,
Initial onset of diabetes depending on age and other comorbidities.
mellitus
,A 23-year-old woman Frovatriptan
presents to the clinic with
a history of debilitating, Frovatriptan and naratriptan are two long-acting
unilateral headaches that triptans that have been found to be effective in
only occur shortly before preventing menstrual migraine if taken around-the-
her period and take her clock starting two days before menses and continuing
several days to recover. for a total of five to six days. Menstrual migraines are
Which one of the migraine headaches that occur exclusively near the
following triptans has time of menses. Triptans are drugs specific to migraine
been found to be treatment and bind to serotonergic receptors. They
effective in preventing are considered first-line treatment for moderate to
these kinds of headaches? severe migraines or for mild-to-moderate migraine
Almotriptan headaches that have failed other analgesics. Triptans
Frovatriptan have vasoconstrictive properties so their use is
Rizatriptan contraindicated in those with ischemic heart disease,
Sumatriptan stroke, uncontrolled hypertension, or basilar migraine
,A 55-year-old woman with Order a CBC
restless legs syndrome
presents with worsening Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized
leg symptoms described by sensory disturbances and an irresistible urge to
as crawling and fidgeting move the legs during periods of rest. Patients will
over the past 4 weeks. Her often report disturbed sleep patterns and daytime
symptoms have been sleepiness. Certain conditions can predispose
interfering with her quality individuals to developing the syndrome, such as
of sleep. When asked family history of restless legs syndrome, Parkinson
about medications, she disease, pregnancy, iron deficiency anemia, or
reports only taking diabetic peripheral neuropathy
pramipexole 0.5 mg
(normal dose range: 0.125-
0.5 mg) in the evenings.
Which of the following is
the most appropriate next
step in management?
Discontinue pramipexole
and start gabapentin
Offer reassurance and
recommend a melatonin
supplement at bedtime
Order a CBC
Refer to neurology
, A 42-year-old woman Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with and
presents to the office with without contrast
double vision and eye
pain. She reports these The first test to order in the above patient who is
symptoms started 4 days suspected of having multiple sclerosis (MS) would be
ago, and she experienced a contrast-enhanced MRI of the brain. She is
a similar episode around 3 presenting with what appears to be optic neuritis
months ago. She reports along with examination findings of internuclear
pain and blurring of vision ophthalmoplegia
in her left eye. She has no
significant past medical
history and takes no
medications. On physical
examination, her vital signs
are normal. A focused
neurologic examination
reveals that the patient
cannot fully adduct her
left eye while at the same
time you notice nystagmus
on abduction of the right
eye. There is dysmetria
with finger-nose testing in
the right arm. What would
be the first test to order
on this patient based on
the suspected diagnosis?
Cerebrospinal fluid
analysis for oligoclonal
bands
Computed tomography of
the brain with and without
contrast
Magnetic resonance
imaging of the brain with
and without contrast
Visual evoked potentials
