EMD Course V14 = Emergency Medical Dispatcher
(NAED Protocol Version 14) EXAM PRACTICE TEST
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES | INSTANT
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1. Which of the following best describes the primary role of an Emergency Medical Dispatcher
(EMD)?
A. To provide medical treatment on scene
B. To dispatch police and fire services only
C. To triage calls and provide pre-arrival instructions
D. To transport patients to hospitals
Correct answer: C — The EMD’s primary function is to assess, prioritize, and give pre-arrival care
instructions while dispatching the correct response.
2. Which term refers to the process of determining the appropriate response based on
information gathered from the caller?
A. Prioritization
B. Dispatching
C. Triage
D. Protocol selection
Correct answer: C — Triage is the structured evaluation process to determine response priority
and type based on the caller’s information.
3. The Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS) is organized into how many main protocols?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 36
D. 40
,Correct answer: C — MPDS Version 14 includes 36 main protocols covering various medical and
trauma conditions.
4. The EMD must always follow protocols because:
A. They prevent lawsuits
B. They ensure consistent and medically approved care
C. They reduce call duration
D. They are optional guidelines
Correct answer: B — Protocols standardize responses, ensuring every caller receives consistent,
evidence-based medical guidance.
5. Which of the following is NOT a Key Question in the EMD script?
A. “What’s the address of the emergency?”
B. “What’s your name?”
C. “How many people are hurt?”
D. “What’s your insurance provider?”
Correct answer: D — Insurance information is irrelevant during emergency call triage.
6. When an EMD identifies an unresponsive and non-breathing adult, what pre-arrival
instruction should be prioritized?
A. Airway management
B. Chest compressions
C. Checking pulse
D. Oxygen administration
Correct answer: B — The EMD directs immediate chest compressions to begin CPR without
delay.
7. The most important information to verify first during any call is:
A. Chief complaint
B. Caller’s name
C. Address/location
D. Patient’s age
Correct answer: C — Location is critical to ensure help is dispatched even if the call disconnects.
, 8. The term “Chief Complaint” refers to:
A. The caller’s emotional state
B. The primary reason for the call
C. The dispatcher’s initial impression
D. The type of emergency vehicle required
Correct answer: B — The chief complaint identifies the caller’s main concern and guides protocol
selection.
9. If the caller reports chest pain, the EMD should select which protocol?
A. Protocol 10
B. Protocol 6
C. Protocol 2
D. Protocol 4
Correct answer: B — Protocol 6 covers chest pain (cardiac) in MPDS Version 14.
10. The EMD should remain calm and speak clearly because:
A. It builds caller confidence and ensures accurate information
B. It reduces call time
C. It avoids protocol deviation
D. It shows authority
Correct answer: A — Calm, clear communication helps reassure the caller and promotes
accurate information exchange.
11. Which protocol would the EMD select for a choking adult?
A. Protocol 3
B. Protocol 6
C. Protocol 11
D. Protocol 31
Correct answer: A — Protocol 3 is used for choking (Heimlich instructions).
12. What does “Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs)” refer to?
A. Directions to the hospital
B. Medical advice given after EMS arrival
C. Medically approved guidance before responders arrive
(NAED Protocol Version 14) EXAM PRACTICE TEST
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. Which of the following best describes the primary role of an Emergency Medical Dispatcher
(EMD)?
A. To provide medical treatment on scene
B. To dispatch police and fire services only
C. To triage calls and provide pre-arrival instructions
D. To transport patients to hospitals
Correct answer: C — The EMD’s primary function is to assess, prioritize, and give pre-arrival care
instructions while dispatching the correct response.
2. Which term refers to the process of determining the appropriate response based on
information gathered from the caller?
A. Prioritization
B. Dispatching
C. Triage
D. Protocol selection
Correct answer: C — Triage is the structured evaluation process to determine response priority
and type based on the caller’s information.
3. The Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS) is organized into how many main protocols?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 36
D. 40
,Correct answer: C — MPDS Version 14 includes 36 main protocols covering various medical and
trauma conditions.
4. The EMD must always follow protocols because:
A. They prevent lawsuits
B. They ensure consistent and medically approved care
C. They reduce call duration
D. They are optional guidelines
Correct answer: B — Protocols standardize responses, ensuring every caller receives consistent,
evidence-based medical guidance.
5. Which of the following is NOT a Key Question in the EMD script?
A. “What’s the address of the emergency?”
B. “What’s your name?”
C. “How many people are hurt?”
D. “What’s your insurance provider?”
Correct answer: D — Insurance information is irrelevant during emergency call triage.
6. When an EMD identifies an unresponsive and non-breathing adult, what pre-arrival
instruction should be prioritized?
A. Airway management
B. Chest compressions
C. Checking pulse
D. Oxygen administration
Correct answer: B — The EMD directs immediate chest compressions to begin CPR without
delay.
7. The most important information to verify first during any call is:
A. Chief complaint
B. Caller’s name
C. Address/location
D. Patient’s age
Correct answer: C — Location is critical to ensure help is dispatched even if the call disconnects.
, 8. The term “Chief Complaint” refers to:
A. The caller’s emotional state
B. The primary reason for the call
C. The dispatcher’s initial impression
D. The type of emergency vehicle required
Correct answer: B — The chief complaint identifies the caller’s main concern and guides protocol
selection.
9. If the caller reports chest pain, the EMD should select which protocol?
A. Protocol 10
B. Protocol 6
C. Protocol 2
D. Protocol 4
Correct answer: B — Protocol 6 covers chest pain (cardiac) in MPDS Version 14.
10. The EMD should remain calm and speak clearly because:
A. It builds caller confidence and ensures accurate information
B. It reduces call time
C. It avoids protocol deviation
D. It shows authority
Correct answer: A — Calm, clear communication helps reassure the caller and promotes
accurate information exchange.
11. Which protocol would the EMD select for a choking adult?
A. Protocol 3
B. Protocol 6
C. Protocol 11
D. Protocol 31
Correct answer: A — Protocol 3 is used for choking (Heimlich instructions).
12. What does “Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs)” refer to?
A. Directions to the hospital
B. Medical advice given after EMS arrival
C. Medically approved guidance before responders arrive
