NR 574 – Acute Care Practicum I Guide |
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
(Verified Solutions) – Chamberlain
Final Exam: NR574 / NR574 – Acute Care Practicum I | 100 Questions & Verified Solutions
1. What is the primary goal during the initial assessment of a patient with an acute
exacerbation of COPD?
A) Initiate long-term corticosteroid therapy
B) Establish IV access for fluid resuscitation
C) Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation
D) Administer a beta-blocker to control heart rate
2. A patient with heart failure is started on Furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is
the nurse practitioner most concerned about?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
3. When managing a diabetic patient in the acute care setting, the NP recognizes that a blood
glucose level consistently above 180 mg/dL is associated with:
A) Improved wound healing
B) Increased risk of infection
C) Hypoglycemic unawareness
D) Decreased serum osmolality
4. The NP is evaluating a patient with suspected sepsis. According to the Sepsis-3 guidelines,
which tool should be used for rapid identification?
A) APACHE II Score
B) qSOFA (Quick Sequential Organ Failure Assessment)
C) Glasgow Coma Scale
D) CURB-65 Score
5. A key difference between Delirium and Dementia is:
A) Delirium has a chronic, progressive course.
B) Dementia typically has a sudden onset and fluctuating course.
,C) Delirium is characterized by an acute onset and inattention.
D) Level of consciousness is unaffected in delirium.
6. The first-line diagnostic test for a suspected pulmonary embolism is:
A) Chest X-Ray
B) D-dimer
C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
D) Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) Scan
7. In a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a hallmark finding on the
chest x-ray is:
A) A large pleural effusion
B) Bilateral patchy infiltrates
C) A collapsed right lower lobe
D) An enlarged cardiac silhouette
8. The NP is managing a patient with a hypertensive emergency. What is the primary goal for
lowering the mean arterial pressure (MAP) in the first hour?
A) Reduce MAP by no more than 10-15%
B) Reduce MAP to a normal level of < 120/80 immediately
C) Reduce MAP by 25% within 10 minutes
D) Focus on diastolic pressure only
9. For a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) and pulmonary edema, the
first-line IV medication is typically:
A) Metoprolol
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Lisinopril
D) Digoxin
10. Which of the following is a sign of adequate fluid resuscitation in a septic patient?
A) Central Venous Pressure (CVP) > 12 mmHg
B) Mixed Venous Oxygen Saturation (SvO2) > 65%
C) Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D) Heart rate of 120 bpm
11. The most common cause of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) in adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
, C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Staphylococcus aureus
12. When interpreting Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 26
mEq/L, the NP identifies which condition?
A) Metabolic Acidosis
B) Metabolic Alkalosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
13. The antidote for a heparin overdose is:
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine Sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
14. A patient presents with chest pain that is sharp, pleuritic, and relieved by leaning forward.
The NP is most suspicious for:
A) Acute Myocardial Infarction
B) Pulmonary Embolism
C) Pericarditis
D) Aortic Dissection
15. The NP is preparing to intubate a critically ill patient. The drug of choice for rapid
sequence intubation (RSI) due to its rapid onset and short duration is:
A) Fentanyl
B) Propofol
C) Etomidate
D) Midazolam
16. In managing a patient with a symptomatic atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular
response (RVR), the NP considers which medication contraindicated in patients with Wolff-
Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?
A) Diltiazem
B) Metoprolol
C) Amiodarone
D) Digoxin
17. The NP is assessing a post-operative patient who develops sudden dyspnea, tachycardia,
and pleuritic chest pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
(Verified Solutions) – Chamberlain
Final Exam: NR574 / NR574 – Acute Care Practicum I | 100 Questions & Verified Solutions
1. What is the primary goal during the initial assessment of a patient with an acute
exacerbation of COPD?
A) Initiate long-term corticosteroid therapy
B) Establish IV access for fluid resuscitation
C) Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation
D) Administer a beta-blocker to control heart rate
2. A patient with heart failure is started on Furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is
the nurse practitioner most concerned about?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
3. When managing a diabetic patient in the acute care setting, the NP recognizes that a blood
glucose level consistently above 180 mg/dL is associated with:
A) Improved wound healing
B) Increased risk of infection
C) Hypoglycemic unawareness
D) Decreased serum osmolality
4. The NP is evaluating a patient with suspected sepsis. According to the Sepsis-3 guidelines,
which tool should be used for rapid identification?
A) APACHE II Score
B) qSOFA (Quick Sequential Organ Failure Assessment)
C) Glasgow Coma Scale
D) CURB-65 Score
5. A key difference between Delirium and Dementia is:
A) Delirium has a chronic, progressive course.
B) Dementia typically has a sudden onset and fluctuating course.
,C) Delirium is characterized by an acute onset and inattention.
D) Level of consciousness is unaffected in delirium.
6. The first-line diagnostic test for a suspected pulmonary embolism is:
A) Chest X-Ray
B) D-dimer
C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
D) Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) Scan
7. In a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), a hallmark finding on the
chest x-ray is:
A) A large pleural effusion
B) Bilateral patchy infiltrates
C) A collapsed right lower lobe
D) An enlarged cardiac silhouette
8. The NP is managing a patient with a hypertensive emergency. What is the primary goal for
lowering the mean arterial pressure (MAP) in the first hour?
A) Reduce MAP by no more than 10-15%
B) Reduce MAP to a normal level of < 120/80 immediately
C) Reduce MAP by 25% within 10 minutes
D) Focus on diastolic pressure only
9. For a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) and pulmonary edema, the
first-line IV medication is typically:
A) Metoprolol
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Lisinopril
D) Digoxin
10. Which of the following is a sign of adequate fluid resuscitation in a septic patient?
A) Central Venous Pressure (CVP) > 12 mmHg
B) Mixed Venous Oxygen Saturation (SvO2) > 65%
C) Urine output of 20 mL/hr
D) Heart rate of 120 bpm
11. The most common cause of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) in adults is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
, C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Staphylococcus aureus
12. When interpreting Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 26
mEq/L, the NP identifies which condition?
A) Metabolic Acidosis
B) Metabolic Alkalosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
13. The antidote for a heparin overdose is:
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine Sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
14. A patient presents with chest pain that is sharp, pleuritic, and relieved by leaning forward.
The NP is most suspicious for:
A) Acute Myocardial Infarction
B) Pulmonary Embolism
C) Pericarditis
D) Aortic Dissection
15. The NP is preparing to intubate a critically ill patient. The drug of choice for rapid
sequence intubation (RSI) due to its rapid onset and short duration is:
A) Fentanyl
B) Propofol
C) Etomidate
D) Midazolam
16. In managing a patient with a symptomatic atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular
response (RVR), the NP considers which medication contraindicated in patients with Wolff-
Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?
A) Diltiazem
B) Metoprolol
C) Amiodarone
D) Digoxin
17. The NP is assessing a post-operative patient who develops sudden dyspnea, tachycardia,
and pleuritic chest pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
