APEA PRE PREDICTOR ACTUAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES 2026 LATEST VERSION
ALREADY GRADED A+
OVERVIEW
This 150-question APEA Predictor Practice Exam covers mixed nursing topics,
including Fundamentals, Med-Surg, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Psychiatric, and Leadership. Each question includes the correct
answer with a concise rationale to reinforce clinical reasoning, patient safety,
and exam readiness, helping students identify gaps and build confidence for the
APEA Predictor and nursing practice.
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of breath when lying flat. What
position should the nurse recommend?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Rationale: High Fowler’s position promotes maximum lung expansion and decreases venous return,
reducing dyspnea in heart failure.
2. A nurse is administering furosemide to a client. Which electrolyte imbalance is the greatest concern?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium loss, increasing the risk for
hypokalemia.
3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client taking warfarin. Which statement indicates the need for
further teaching?
A. “I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.”
B. “I will use an electric razor.”
C. “I will have my INR checked regularly.”
D. “I will report any signs of bleeding.”
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which decreases warfarin effectiveness.
,4. A nurse is assessing a postpartum client 2 hours after delivery. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Fundus firm, midline
B. Saturating one peripad per 15 minutes
C. Small amount of lochia rubra
D. Mild cramping
Rationale: Excessive bleeding may indicate postpartum hemorrhage and requires immediate action.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving morphine IV for pain. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Constipation
B. Drowsiness
C. Respiratory rate 8/min
D. Nausea
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of opioid administration.
6. A nurse is providing teaching about insulin. Which statement shows understanding?
A. “I will mix glargine with regular insulin.”
B. “I will rotate injection sites to avoid lipodystrophy.”
C. “I will skip a dose if I skip a meal.”
D. “I’ll store all insulin in the freezer.”
Rationale: Rotating sites prevents tissue damage and ensures consistent absorption.
7. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with a fractured arm
B. Client with chest pain radiating to the jaw
C. Client with nausea
D. Client awaiting discharge
Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the jaw indicates possible myocardial infarction, a priority emergency.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. The apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Hold the medication and notify the provider
B. Administer and monitor
C. Give half the dose
D. Recheck in 10 minutes
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; hold if the apical pulse is <60 bpm.
9. A nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) not washing hands before client care. What
should the nurse do?
, A. Intervene immediately and reinforce infection control standards
B. Report to infection control
C. Document the event only
D. Do nothing if no infection is present
Rationale: Direct intervention ensures infection control compliance and patient safety.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who is diaphoretic and shaky. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Recheck blood glucose in 15 min
B. Give 4 oz of orange juice
C. Call the provider
D. Give insulin
Rationale: Symptoms indicate hypoglycemia; administer fast-acting carbohydrates immediately.
11. A nurse notes a pressure ulcer on a client’s sacrum. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Massage the reddened area
B. Reposition every 2 hours
C. Apply alcohol to dry the area
D. Keep the area uncovered
Rationale: Frequent repositioning relieves pressure and promotes circulation.
12. A nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
A. O₂ saturation 86%
B. Respiratory rate 10/min
C. Decreased dyspnea with O₂ sat 92%
D. Use of accessory muscles
Rationale: Improved oxygenation and reduced dyspnea indicate therapy effectiveness.
13. Which action should the nurse take to prevent medication errors?
A. Rely on memory for medication administration
B. Ask another nurse to identify the client
C. Use two identifiers before giving medication
D. Skip barcode scanning if busy
Rationale: Two identifiers ensure correct patient and medication administration per safety protocols.
14. A nurse is caring for a client receiving TPN. Which lab should be monitored closely?
A. BUN
B. Hemoglobin
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES 2026 LATEST VERSION
ALREADY GRADED A+
OVERVIEW
This 150-question APEA Predictor Practice Exam covers mixed nursing topics,
including Fundamentals, Med-Surg, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Psychiatric, and Leadership. Each question includes the correct
answer with a concise rationale to reinforce clinical reasoning, patient safety,
and exam readiness, helping students identify gaps and build confidence for the
APEA Predictor and nursing practice.
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports shortness of breath when lying flat. What
position should the nurse recommend?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Rationale: High Fowler’s position promotes maximum lung expansion and decreases venous return,
reducing dyspnea in heart failure.
2. A nurse is administering furosemide to a client. Which electrolyte imbalance is the greatest concern?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium loss, increasing the risk for
hypokalemia.
3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client taking warfarin. Which statement indicates the need for
further teaching?
A. “I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.”
B. “I will use an electric razor.”
C. “I will have my INR checked regularly.”
D. “I will report any signs of bleeding.”
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which decreases warfarin effectiveness.
,4. A nurse is assessing a postpartum client 2 hours after delivery. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Fundus firm, midline
B. Saturating one peripad per 15 minutes
C. Small amount of lochia rubra
D. Mild cramping
Rationale: Excessive bleeding may indicate postpartum hemorrhage and requires immediate action.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving morphine IV for pain. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Constipation
B. Drowsiness
C. Respiratory rate 8/min
D. Nausea
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of opioid administration.
6. A nurse is providing teaching about insulin. Which statement shows understanding?
A. “I will mix glargine with regular insulin.”
B. “I will rotate injection sites to avoid lipodystrophy.”
C. “I will skip a dose if I skip a meal.”
D. “I’ll store all insulin in the freezer.”
Rationale: Rotating sites prevents tissue damage and ensures consistent absorption.
7. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with a fractured arm
B. Client with chest pain radiating to the jaw
C. Client with nausea
D. Client awaiting discharge
Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the jaw indicates possible myocardial infarction, a priority emergency.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin. The apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do?
A. Hold the medication and notify the provider
B. Administer and monitor
C. Give half the dose
D. Recheck in 10 minutes
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; hold if the apical pulse is <60 bpm.
9. A nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) not washing hands before client care. What
should the nurse do?
, A. Intervene immediately and reinforce infection control standards
B. Report to infection control
C. Document the event only
D. Do nothing if no infection is present
Rationale: Direct intervention ensures infection control compliance and patient safety.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who is diaphoretic and shaky. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Recheck blood glucose in 15 min
B. Give 4 oz of orange juice
C. Call the provider
D. Give insulin
Rationale: Symptoms indicate hypoglycemia; administer fast-acting carbohydrates immediately.
11. A nurse notes a pressure ulcer on a client’s sacrum. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Massage the reddened area
B. Reposition every 2 hours
C. Apply alcohol to dry the area
D. Keep the area uncovered
Rationale: Frequent repositioning relieves pressure and promotes circulation.
12. A nurse is assessing a client with COPD. Which finding indicates effective treatment?
A. O₂ saturation 86%
B. Respiratory rate 10/min
C. Decreased dyspnea with O₂ sat 92%
D. Use of accessory muscles
Rationale: Improved oxygenation and reduced dyspnea indicate therapy effectiveness.
13. Which action should the nurse take to prevent medication errors?
A. Rely on memory for medication administration
B. Ask another nurse to identify the client
C. Use two identifiers before giving medication
D. Skip barcode scanning if busy
Rationale: Two identifiers ensure correct patient and medication administration per safety protocols.
14. A nurse is caring for a client receiving TPN. Which lab should be monitored closely?
A. BUN
B. Hemoglobin
