BSN 246 HESI Health Assessment Complete
Exam | Questions and Answers | Latest
2025/2026 Update | Verified Solutions | 100%
Correct | GRADED A – Nightingale
Section 1: Foundations of Health Assessment
1. What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
Answer: The primary purpose is to establish a baseline of the patient's health, identify both
actual and potential health problems, create a nursing diagnosis, and develop a plan of care. It
forms the foundation for all subsequent nursing interventions.
2. Differentiate between subjective and objective data.
Answer: Subjective data (symptoms) are information perceived only by the patient (e.g., pain,
nausea, anxiety). Objective data (signs) are observable and measurable information obtained
through examination, observation, or diagnostic tests (e.g., blood pressure, rash, lung sounds).
3. During the interview, the nurse states, "Can you describe what your headache feels like?"
What type of question is this?
Answer: This is an open-ended question. It encourages the patient to elaborate and provide a
narrative response, yielding more detailed and descriptive information.
4. List the four major techniques used in the physical examination.
Answer: The four techniques are: 1) Inspection, 2) Palpation, 3) Percussion, and 4) Auscultation.
(Note: For the abdominal exam, the order is Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation to
avoid altering bowel sounds).
5. What is the concept of "cultural competence" in health assessment?
Answer: Cultural competence is the ability of the healthcare provider to understand and respect
the patient's values, beliefs, and practices, and to apply that knowledge to deliver care that is
sensitive and effective within the patient's cultural context.
6. When preparing the environment for a physical exam, what are three key considerations
for the nurse?
Answer: 1) Ensure privacy by closing doors and curtains. 2) Maintain a comfortable room
temperature. 3) Provide adequate lighting and a clean, safe examination area.
, 7. Define the term "Chief Complaint."
Answer: The Chief Complaint is the primary reason for the patient seeking healthcare, stated in
the patient's own words. It is often documented using the acronym OLDCARTS (Onset, Location,
Duration, Character, Aggravating/Alleviating factors, Radiation, Timing, Severity).
8. What is the difference between a comprehensive and a focused assessment?
Answer: A comprehensive assessment is a complete head-to-toe assessment performed during
initial admission or for a annual physical. A focused assessment is problem-oriented and centers
on a specific body system related to the patient's current concern (e.g., focused respiratory
assessment for a patient with shortness of breath).
Section 2: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
9. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg would be classified in which category for an
adult?
Answer: Stage 1 Hypertension.
10. Define pulse pressure and its clinical significance.
Answer: Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure (e.g.,
120 - 80 = 40 mmHg). A widened pulse pressure may indicate increased intracranial pressure or
aortic regurgitation, while a narrowed pulse pressure may indicate shock or cardiac tamponade.
11. What is the most accurate site for measuring core body temperature?
Answer: The pulmonary artery, as measured via a pulmonary artery catheter. However, in most
clinical settings, tympanic membrane or rectal temperatures are considered the most accurate
non-invasive alternatives.
12. A patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What is the correct term for this
finding?
Answer: Bradypnea.
13. When assessing pain, what does the "P" in the PQRST mnemonic stand for?
Answer: Provocation/Palliation (What makes the pain better or worse?).
14. A patient who is obese has a blood pressure reading of 168/96 in the office. What action
should the nurse take first?
Answer: Ensure the correct cuff size was used. Using a cuff that is too small for the patient's arm
circumference can yield a falsely high reading.
15. What is the expected normal range for oxygen saturation (SpO2) in a healthy adult?
Answer: 95% to 100%.
Exam | Questions and Answers | Latest
2025/2026 Update | Verified Solutions | 100%
Correct | GRADED A – Nightingale
Section 1: Foundations of Health Assessment
1. What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
Answer: The primary purpose is to establish a baseline of the patient's health, identify both
actual and potential health problems, create a nursing diagnosis, and develop a plan of care. It
forms the foundation for all subsequent nursing interventions.
2. Differentiate between subjective and objective data.
Answer: Subjective data (symptoms) are information perceived only by the patient (e.g., pain,
nausea, anxiety). Objective data (signs) are observable and measurable information obtained
through examination, observation, or diagnostic tests (e.g., blood pressure, rash, lung sounds).
3. During the interview, the nurse states, "Can you describe what your headache feels like?"
What type of question is this?
Answer: This is an open-ended question. It encourages the patient to elaborate and provide a
narrative response, yielding more detailed and descriptive information.
4. List the four major techniques used in the physical examination.
Answer: The four techniques are: 1) Inspection, 2) Palpation, 3) Percussion, and 4) Auscultation.
(Note: For the abdominal exam, the order is Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation to
avoid altering bowel sounds).
5. What is the concept of "cultural competence" in health assessment?
Answer: Cultural competence is the ability of the healthcare provider to understand and respect
the patient's values, beliefs, and practices, and to apply that knowledge to deliver care that is
sensitive and effective within the patient's cultural context.
6. When preparing the environment for a physical exam, what are three key considerations
for the nurse?
Answer: 1) Ensure privacy by closing doors and curtains. 2) Maintain a comfortable room
temperature. 3) Provide adequate lighting and a clean, safe examination area.
, 7. Define the term "Chief Complaint."
Answer: The Chief Complaint is the primary reason for the patient seeking healthcare, stated in
the patient's own words. It is often documented using the acronym OLDCARTS (Onset, Location,
Duration, Character, Aggravating/Alleviating factors, Radiation, Timing, Severity).
8. What is the difference between a comprehensive and a focused assessment?
Answer: A comprehensive assessment is a complete head-to-toe assessment performed during
initial admission or for a annual physical. A focused assessment is problem-oriented and centers
on a specific body system related to the patient's current concern (e.g., focused respiratory
assessment for a patient with shortness of breath).
Section 2: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
9. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg would be classified in which category for an
adult?
Answer: Stage 1 Hypertension.
10. Define pulse pressure and its clinical significance.
Answer: Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure (e.g.,
120 - 80 = 40 mmHg). A widened pulse pressure may indicate increased intracranial pressure or
aortic regurgitation, while a narrowed pulse pressure may indicate shock or cardiac tamponade.
11. What is the most accurate site for measuring core body temperature?
Answer: The pulmonary artery, as measured via a pulmonary artery catheter. However, in most
clinical settings, tympanic membrane or rectal temperatures are considered the most accurate
non-invasive alternatives.
12. A patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What is the correct term for this
finding?
Answer: Bradypnea.
13. When assessing pain, what does the "P" in the PQRST mnemonic stand for?
Answer: Provocation/Palliation (What makes the pain better or worse?).
14. A patient who is obese has a blood pressure reading of 168/96 in the office. What action
should the nurse take first?
Answer: Ensure the correct cuff size was used. Using a cuff that is too small for the patient's arm
circumference can yield a falsely high reading.
15. What is the expected normal range for oxygen saturation (SpO2) in a healthy adult?
Answer: 95% to 100%.
