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Dental Nurse 315 Exam Success 2025: Step-by-Step Revision and Question Bank

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A 13 year old male patient attends for an orthodontic assessment. The dentist identifies an increased overjet. Which class of malocclusion is this a feature of? A. Class I B. Class II Division 1 C. Class II Division 2 D. Class III Rationale: Class II Division 1 malocclusion is characterized by protruded upper incisors causing an increased overjet. Division 2 shows retroclined incisors, while Class I and III do not present with increased overjet. A 14 year old male patient attends for an orthodontic treatment assessment. The dentist identifies an increased overbite. Which class of malocclusion is this a feature of? A. Class I B. Class II Division 1 C. Class II Division 2 D. Class III Rationale: Class II Division 1 can present with an increased overbite due to overclosure and protrusion of upper teeth. Class II Division 2 involves retroclined teeth but not necessarily deep bite. How often must a metal matrix band be replaced? A. Once weekly B. After three patients C. When visibly damaged D. After every patient Rationale: Metal matrix bands are single-use to maintain infection control. Reuse increases cross-contamination risk. You are passed a telephone message for another dentist’s patient. They are suffering from secondary haemorrhage following an extraction. How long ago was the treatment? A. 2–4 hours B. 24 hours C. 4–5 days D. 7–10 days Rationale: Secondary haemorrhage typically occurs 7–10 days post-extraction due to infection disturbing the clot. If a patient is suffering from a primary haemorrhage, how long ago was the treatment? A. 2–4 hours B. 7–10 days C. 12–24 hours D. 2–3 days Rationale: Primary haemorrhage occurs immediately or within a few hours after extraction before clot formation. What equipment is used to pack gutta percha into a canal during obturation? A. Barbed broach B. Reamer C. Plugger D. Lateral condensor Rationale: A lateral condensor compresses gutta percha laterally to fill canal space. Barbed broach removes pulp tissue; reamer enlarges canals. What instrument is used during a pulpectomy to extirpate the pulp? A. Lentulo spiral B. Reamer C. Barbed broach D. Condenser Rationale: A barbed broach engages and removes pulp tissue from the canal; other instruments are for shaping or filling. If the pulp is slightly exposed during a restorative procedure what procedure is most likely to be carried out? A. Pulpectomy B. Pulp capping C. Root filling D. Crown Rationale: Pulp capping protects the exposed pulp and encourages healing; pulpectomy removes pulp entirely. A pulpotomy is? A. Full pulp removal B. Temporary dressing of pulp C. Removal of the coronal pulp D. Application of medicament Rationale: A pulpotomy removes only the coronal portion of pulp, preserving the radicular pulp in vital teeth.

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Dental Nurse 315 Exam Success 2025:
Step-by-Step Revision and Question Bank

A 13 year old male patient attends for an orthodontic assessment. The dentist identifies an
increased overjet. Which class of malocclusion is this a feature of?
A. Class I
B. Class II Division 1
C. Class II Division 2
D. Class III
Rationale: Class II Division 1 malocclusion is characterized by protruded upper incisors causing
an increased overjet. Division 2 shows retroclined incisors, while Class I and III do not present
with increased overjet.

A 14 year old male patient attends for an orthodontic treatment assessment. The dentist identifies
an increased overbite. Which class of malocclusion is this a feature of?
A. Class I
B. Class II Division 1
C. Class II Division 2
D. Class III
Rationale: Class II Division 1 can present with an increased overbite due to overclosure and
protrusion of upper teeth. Class II Division 2 involves retroclined teeth but not necessarily deep
bite.

How often must a metal matrix band be replaced?
A. Once weekly
B. After three patients
C. When visibly damaged
D. After every patient
Rationale: Metal matrix bands are single-use to maintain infection control. Reuse increases
cross-contamination risk.

You are passed a telephone message for another dentist’s patient. They are suffering from
secondary haemorrhage following an extraction. How long ago was the treatment?
A. 2–4 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 4–5 days
D. 7–10 days
Rationale: Secondary haemorrhage typically occurs 7–10 days post-extraction due to infection
disturbing the clot.

If a patient is suffering from a primary haemorrhage, how long ago was the treatment?
A. 2–4 hours

,B. 7–10 days
C. 12–24 hours
D. 2–3 days
Rationale: Primary haemorrhage occurs immediately or within a few hours after extraction
before clot formation.

What equipment is used to pack gutta percha into a canal during obturation?
A. Barbed broach
B. Reamer
C. Plugger
D. Lateral condensor
Rationale: A lateral condensor compresses gutta percha laterally to fill canal space. Barbed
broach removes pulp tissue; reamer enlarges canals.

What instrument is used during a pulpectomy to extirpate the pulp?
A. Lentulo spiral
B. Reamer
C. Barbed broach
D. Condenser
Rationale: A barbed broach engages and removes pulp tissue from the canal; other instruments
are for shaping or filling.

If the pulp is slightly exposed during a restorative procedure what procedure is most likely to be
carried out?
A. Pulpectomy
B. Pulp capping
C. Root filling
D. Crown
Rationale: Pulp capping protects the exposed pulp and encourages healing; pulpectomy removes
pulp entirely.

A pulpotomy is?
A. Full pulp removal
B. Temporary dressing of pulp
C. Removal of the coronal pulp
D. Application of medicament
Rationale: A pulpotomy removes only the coronal portion of pulp, preserving the radicular pulp
in vital teeth.

What instrument is used to access the root canal by drilling at the base of the pulp chamber?
A. Reamer
B. Gates Glidden
C. Plugger
D. Barbed broach
Rationale: Gates Glidden burs enlarge the canal entrance to allow access; others are used for
cleaning or shaping.

, Following endodontic treatment a tooth will become what?
A. More flexible
B. Stronger
C. Brittle
D. Elastic
Rationale: Loss of pulp and moisture content leads to brittleness, increasing fracture risk.

An oroantral fistula can occur during tooth extraction. Which teeth may cause this when
extracted?
A. LL6
B. UR5
C. UL6
D. LR7
Rationale: Upper molars, especially UL6 and UL7, are close to the maxillary sinus and may
cause oroantral communication if roots penetrate.

During a surgical extraction of a tooth the gingiva needs to be incised and lifted off the bone.
Which instrument is most suitable?
A. Coupland elevator
B. Periosteal elevator
C. Chisel
D. Luxator
Rationale: A periosteal elevator reflects soft tissue flaps cleanly; others are used for tooth
elevation or bone removal.

Which of the following is classed as a minor oral surgery procedure?
A. Scaling
B. RCT
C. Alveolectomy
D. Impression taking
Rationale: Alveolectomy involves bone reshaping after extraction and is a common MOS
procedure.

Following an extraction, name a valid tooth replacement option.
A. Whitening
B. Veneer
C. Implant
D. Fissure sealant
Rationale: Implants, bridges, and dentures replace missing teeth; others are restorative or
preventive.

What is a sterile hand instrument used to prise the tooth/root out of the socket?
A. Forceps
B. Elevator
C. Chisel

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