LMR Georgette’s PMHNP Exam Review
(2025/2026 Latest Update) – Test Prep
Questions and Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A
Test Prep Questions and Verified Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
This PMHNP certification exam review (2025/2026) includes 100 verified questions covering
DSM-5-TR disorders, pharmacology, psychotherapy, ethics, and lifespan management.
Questions are multiple-choice with four options, correct answer in RED, and rationales with
evidence-based practice.
Question 1
A 25-year-old female reports 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, fatigue, and
suicidal ideation. No manic symptoms. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Bipolar II disorder
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Persistent depressive disorder
Correct Answer: C. Major depressive disorder
Rationale: DSM-5-TR criteria require 5+ symptoms for 2+ weeks, including depressed mood or
anhedonia. APA guidelines recommend immediate suicide risk assessment and SSRI initiation.
Question 2
A 35-year-old male presents with 5 days of elevated mood, grandiosity, decreased sleep, and
risky behavior. History of depression. Diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar I disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Schizoaffective disorder
Correct Answer: B. Bipolar I disorder
Rationale: DSM-5-TR mania episode ≥1 week with impairment. APA: lithium or valproate for
acute management.
, Question 3
A 22-year-old female has mood swings, irritability, and bloating 1 week before menses.
Diagnosis?
A. Premenstrual syndrome
B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Rationale: DSM-5-TR requires 5+ symptoms in luteal phase. APA: SSRI during luteal phase.
Question 4
First-line treatment for MDD in a 40-year-old?
A. Bupropion
B. Sertraline
C. Mirtazapine
D. Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: B. Sertraline
Rationale: APA guidelines: SSRIs first-line due to safety and efficacy.
Question 5
A 55-year-old with MDD fails sertraline. Next step?
A. Switch to TCA
B. Augment with bupropion
C. Add benzodiazepine
D. Increase sertraline
Correct Answer: B. Augment with bupropion
Rationale: STAR*D trial: augmentation improves response rate.
Question 6
A 30-year-old pregnant female with bipolar I. Safest mood stabilizer?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: C. Lamotrigine
Rationale: APA pregnancy guidelines: lowest teratogenic risk.
(2025/2026 Latest Update) – Test Prep
Questions and Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A
Test Prep Questions and Verified Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct
This PMHNP certification exam review (2025/2026) includes 100 verified questions covering
DSM-5-TR disorders, pharmacology, psychotherapy, ethics, and lifespan management.
Questions are multiple-choice with four options, correct answer in RED, and rationales with
evidence-based practice.
Question 1
A 25-year-old female reports 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, fatigue, and
suicidal ideation. No manic symptoms. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Bipolar II disorder
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Persistent depressive disorder
Correct Answer: C. Major depressive disorder
Rationale: DSM-5-TR criteria require 5+ symptoms for 2+ weeks, including depressed mood or
anhedonia. APA guidelines recommend immediate suicide risk assessment and SSRI initiation.
Question 2
A 35-year-old male presents with 5 days of elevated mood, grandiosity, decreased sleep, and
risky behavior. History of depression. Diagnosis?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar I disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Schizoaffective disorder
Correct Answer: B. Bipolar I disorder
Rationale: DSM-5-TR mania episode ≥1 week with impairment. APA: lithium or valproate for
acute management.
, Question 3
A 22-year-old female has mood swings, irritability, and bloating 1 week before menses.
Diagnosis?
A. Premenstrual syndrome
B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Rationale: DSM-5-TR requires 5+ symptoms in luteal phase. APA: SSRI during luteal phase.
Question 4
First-line treatment for MDD in a 40-year-old?
A. Bupropion
B. Sertraline
C. Mirtazapine
D. Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: B. Sertraline
Rationale: APA guidelines: SSRIs first-line due to safety and efficacy.
Question 5
A 55-year-old with MDD fails sertraline. Next step?
A. Switch to TCA
B. Augment with bupropion
C. Add benzodiazepine
D. Increase sertraline
Correct Answer: B. Augment with bupropion
Rationale: STAR*D trial: augmentation improves response rate.
Question 6
A 30-year-old pregnant female with bipolar I. Safest mood stabilizer?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: C. Lamotrigine
Rationale: APA pregnancy guidelines: lowest teratogenic risk.
