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NR 602 Final Exam Questions with Correct Answers

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NR 602 Final Exam Questions with Correct Answers

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NR 602 Final

What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance) pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 co-test in a 26-year-old woman without a history
of abnormal Pap smears? - Answer-Colposcopy



A well woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following - Answer-A general health
history focusing on reproductive and sexual health concerns (mentors, gynecologic, and pregnancy
related) and psychosocial (Family related, peer related, emotional, and physical as well as related to
abuse, drug use and alcohol use) concerns



Physical exam, screening test, and immunizations as indicated by the health history and gynecologic
considerations for an extern only inspection of the genitalia



A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which classification -
Answer-CIN 1



A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should have what as follow-
up? - Answer-Routine screening



A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear and has had regular
screening since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with HPV testing today, when should she have the
next cervical cancer screening - Answer-Five years



A young sexually active client of the family planning clinic is advised to have a Pap smear. She has never
had a Pap smear before. What should the nurse include in the explanation of this procedure - Answer-
The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix

,Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive HPV screen. Which
procedure will be required next - Answer-Repeat Pap and HPV screen



Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to see if having any future Pap test
performed - Answer-Over 55 years of age



You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with amenorrhea and normal secondary sex
characteristics. The purpose of the progesterone challenge is to a certain the presence of - Answer-
Endogenous estrogen



A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months she did experience menarche
at age 15 but had not had a menstrual cycle since. On physical examination, it is noted that she has
normal secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider progesterone challenge to
determine the presence of adequate - Answer-Endogenous estrogen



A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex characteristics. The progesterone
challenge is ordered. the purpose is to determine the presence of - Answer-Endogenous estrogen



18-year-old female complaining of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is a normal secondary sex
characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out what would necessitate further evaluation -
Answer-Galactorrhea



Primary amenorrhea is best described as - Answer-Failure to menstrate by 13 years old



A nurse practitioner is participating in a woman's health fair. When educating the woman about risk
factors for breast cancer which of the following statements is incorrect? - Answer-Fibrocystic breast
disease



When educating women about breast cancer risk factors which statement is incorrect - Answer-
Fibrocystic breast disease

, A woman with lobular carcinoma in situ has a relative risk of developing invasive breast cancer of -
Answer-8.0



Changes and hormonal regulation during menopause result in the gradual cessation of menstruation.
From which gland is Androstenedione secreted - Answer-Adrenals



A Pap smear results of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance rule out high-grade
squamous intraepithelial lesion will require which procedure - Answer-Colposcopy



A Pap smear results of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance require which procedure
next - Answer-Follow-up Pap smear



A 25-year-old presents with a report of a very tender area just near her introitus and to the left of her
perineum. Very painful sex is how she knew something wasn't right. She showered and when washing,
she felt a P sized painful lump on the left side of her bottom. She tells you she looked at it with the
mirror and it was very small but now it is the size of a ping-pong ball and getting worse. when you
Inspect her genitalia you are amazed at the size and appearance of the lump you know what appears to
be an abscess on the left medial side of the labia minora and there is some edema extending into the
perineum. Your diagnosis for this presentation is - Answer-Bartholins cyst



You explain to this young woman what this "lump" is and let her know you will be referring her to a
gynecologist you consult with regularly. You explain to her the likely treatment as follows: - Answer-A
possible incision might be necessary and a catheter placed for 2 to 4 weeks to allow for drainage and
appropriate healing



A client at the woman's health clinic complains of swelling of the labia and throbbing pain in the labial
area after sexual intercourse. For what condition does the nurse anticipate the client will be treated -
Answer-Bartholinitis



Which of the following choices represents a disorder of the reproductive tract that causes pain,
erythema, dyspareunia, and a perineal mass - Answer-Bartholin cyst

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