NR566 / NR 566 Final Exam (Latest
2025/2026): Advanced Pharmacology for
Care of the Family – Chamberlain | 80
Verified Questions & Answers | A+ Graded
Question 1
Citalopram (Celexa) specific adverse effects include:
A. Weight gain and sedation
B. QT prolongation and hyponatremia
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Anticholinergic effects
B. QT prolongation and hyponatremia
Rationale: SSRI; risks QT prolongation (>40 mg/day, elderly) and SIADH-induced
hyponatremia. Monitor ECG/electrolytes per 2025 AHA guidelines.
Question 2
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) require baseline:
A. Liver function only
B. ECG, especially >40 or dysrhythmias
C. Renal function only
D. Thyroid levels
B. ECG, especially >40 or dysrhythmias
Rationale: TCAs (e.g., amitriptyline) prolong QT; baseline ECG prevents cardiac toxicity.
Educate on avoiding alcohol/MAOIs.
Question 3
Clindamycin promotes:
A. MRSA infection
B. Clostridium difficile infection
C. Viral resistance
D. No GI effects
B. Clostridium difficile infection
Rationale: Disrupts gut flora, increasing C. diff risk. Use probiotics; monitor for diarrhea.
,Question 4
Montelukast (Singulair) is used for:
A. Acute asthma exacerbations
B. Maintenance in mild persistent asthma
C. Status asthmaticus
D. COPD only
B. Maintenance in mild persistent asthma
Rationale: Leukotriene inhibitor for prophylaxis. Monitor for neuropsychiatric effects (FDA
black box).
Question 5
PMDD treatment for most symptoms:
A. SSRIs continuously
B. Oral contraceptives only
C. Fluoxetine luteal phase
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Rationale: Multimodal: SSRIs (sertraline continuous), luteal fluoxetine, or OCPs. Educate on
mood tracking.
Question 6
Sitagliptin (Januvia) indication:
A. Monotherapy for type 2 DM
B. Insulin replacement
C. Type 1 DM
D. Acute hypoglycemia
A. Monotherapy for type 2 DM
Rationale: DPP-4 inhibitor; low hypoglycemia risk. Monitor for pancreatitis.
Question 7
LMWH (e.g., enoxaparin) monitoring:
A. aPTT
B. Anti-Xa in renal impairment
C. INR
D. Platelet count weekly
, B. Anti-Xa in renal impairment
Rationale: Routine tests not needed except CrCl <30 mL/min; watch for HIT.
Question 8
Adjunctive therapy for partial seizures:
A. Phenytoin
B. Levetiracetam
C. Valproic acid
D. Carbamazepine
B. Levetiracetam
Rationale: Broad-spectrum AED; minimal interactions. Monitor for behavioral changes.
Question 9
Amiodarone interaction:
A. Increases warfarin INR
B. No interactions
C. Statins only
D. Beta-blockers
A. Increases warfarin INR
Rationale: CYP3A4/2C9 inhibitor; adjust warfarin, monitor INR.
Question 10
Antibiotic therapy goal:
A. Eradicate all bacteria
B. Narrow-spectrum to target pathogen
C. Broad-spectrum always
D. Shortest duration
B. Narrow-spectrum to target pathogen
Rationale: Stewardship reduces resistance; de-escalate based on cultures.
Question 11
Estrogen mechanism:
A. Cell surface receptors
B. Nuclear receptors
2025/2026): Advanced Pharmacology for
Care of the Family – Chamberlain | 80
Verified Questions & Answers | A+ Graded
Question 1
Citalopram (Celexa) specific adverse effects include:
A. Weight gain and sedation
B. QT prolongation and hyponatremia
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Anticholinergic effects
B. QT prolongation and hyponatremia
Rationale: SSRI; risks QT prolongation (>40 mg/day, elderly) and SIADH-induced
hyponatremia. Monitor ECG/electrolytes per 2025 AHA guidelines.
Question 2
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) require baseline:
A. Liver function only
B. ECG, especially >40 or dysrhythmias
C. Renal function only
D. Thyroid levels
B. ECG, especially >40 or dysrhythmias
Rationale: TCAs (e.g., amitriptyline) prolong QT; baseline ECG prevents cardiac toxicity.
Educate on avoiding alcohol/MAOIs.
Question 3
Clindamycin promotes:
A. MRSA infection
B. Clostridium difficile infection
C. Viral resistance
D. No GI effects
B. Clostridium difficile infection
Rationale: Disrupts gut flora, increasing C. diff risk. Use probiotics; monitor for diarrhea.
,Question 4
Montelukast (Singulair) is used for:
A. Acute asthma exacerbations
B. Maintenance in mild persistent asthma
C. Status asthmaticus
D. COPD only
B. Maintenance in mild persistent asthma
Rationale: Leukotriene inhibitor for prophylaxis. Monitor for neuropsychiatric effects (FDA
black box).
Question 5
PMDD treatment for most symptoms:
A. SSRIs continuously
B. Oral contraceptives only
C. Fluoxetine luteal phase
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Rationale: Multimodal: SSRIs (sertraline continuous), luteal fluoxetine, or OCPs. Educate on
mood tracking.
Question 6
Sitagliptin (Januvia) indication:
A. Monotherapy for type 2 DM
B. Insulin replacement
C. Type 1 DM
D. Acute hypoglycemia
A. Monotherapy for type 2 DM
Rationale: DPP-4 inhibitor; low hypoglycemia risk. Monitor for pancreatitis.
Question 7
LMWH (e.g., enoxaparin) monitoring:
A. aPTT
B. Anti-Xa in renal impairment
C. INR
D. Platelet count weekly
, B. Anti-Xa in renal impairment
Rationale: Routine tests not needed except CrCl <30 mL/min; watch for HIT.
Question 8
Adjunctive therapy for partial seizures:
A. Phenytoin
B. Levetiracetam
C. Valproic acid
D. Carbamazepine
B. Levetiracetam
Rationale: Broad-spectrum AED; minimal interactions. Monitor for behavioral changes.
Question 9
Amiodarone interaction:
A. Increases warfarin INR
B. No interactions
C. Statins only
D. Beta-blockers
A. Increases warfarin INR
Rationale: CYP3A4/2C9 inhibitor; adjust warfarin, monitor INR.
Question 10
Antibiotic therapy goal:
A. Eradicate all bacteria
B. Narrow-spectrum to target pathogen
C. Broad-spectrum always
D. Shortest duration
B. Narrow-spectrum to target pathogen
Rationale: Stewardship reduces resistance; de-escalate based on cultures.
Question 11
Estrogen mechanism:
A. Cell surface receptors
B. Nuclear receptors
