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WGU D027 – Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations (Western Governors University) | Pre-Assessment 2025/2026 – Verified Questions, 100% Correct Answers & Faculty-Level Rationales | Grade A

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This document includes the complete Pre-Assessment for WGU D027 (Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations) at Western Governors University, updated for the 2025/2026 academic year. It features verified questions with 100% correct answers and detailed faculty-level rationales explaining each concept. Topics covered include pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, pathophysiologic mechanisms of disease, therapeutic drug classifications, adverse effects, and clinical decision-making. Ideal for MSN and NP students, this resource aligns with WGU’s competency-based curriculum and supports mastery of advanced pharmacology and pathophysiology principles.

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WGU D027 Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundation
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WGU D027 Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundation

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Uploaded on
October 14, 2025
Number of pages
27
Written in
2025/2026
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WGU D027 – Advanced Pathopharmacological
Foundations (Western Governors University) |
Pre-Assessment 2025/2026 – Verified Questions,
100% Correct Answers & Faculty-Level
Rationales | Grade A
Instructions: This pre-assessment contains 120 multiple-choice questions covering advanced
pathophysiology, pharmacology, and their integration for nurse practitioners. Each question
includes four answer choices, the correct answer in RED, and a faculty-level rationale explaining
why the correct answer is right and why the others are incorrect. Questions are separated by
horizontal lines for clarity.



Question 1
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 9.5%. What
does this indicate?
A. Good glycemic control
B. Poor glycemic control
C. Normal blood glucose levels
D. Acute hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Poor glycemic control
Rationale: HbA1c of 9.5% reflects average blood glucose of ~225 mg/dL over 3 months,
indicating poor control (target <7%). Good control (A) is <7%, normal (C) is <5.7%,
hypoglycemia (D) is low glucose, not HbA1c.



Question 2
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what is the primary pathophysiological
mechanism?
A. Airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction
B. Alveolar destruction and airflow limitation
C. Excessive mucus production
D. Vascular remodeling
Correct Answer: B. Alveolar destruction and airflow limitation
Rationale: COPD involves emphysema (alveolar destruction) and chronic bronchitis, leading to
irreversible airflow limitation. Inflammation/bronchoconstriction (A) is asthma, mucus (C)
chronic bronchitis but not primary, vascular (D) secondary.

,Question 3
A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What is the mechanism of action?
A. Beta-adrenergic blockade
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition
C. Calcium channel blockade
D. Diuretic effect
Correct Answer: B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition
Rationale: Lisinopril inhibits ACE, reducing angiotensin II formation and vasodilation. Beta-
blockade (A) is metoprolol, calcium blockade (C) amlodipine, diuretic (D) furosemide.



Question 4
In rheumatoid arthritis, what is the role of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)?
A. Promotes joint repair
B. Inhibits inflammation
C. Mediates synovial inflammation
D. Enhances cartilage growth
Correct Answer: C. Mediates synovial inflammation
Rationale: TNF-α is a pro-inflammatory cytokine in RA, driving synovial proliferation. Repair
(A) and growth (D) are anti-inflammatory, inhibition (B) opposite.



Question 5
A patient with chronic kidney disease has elevated serum phosphorus. What is the appropriate
pharmacologic intervention?
A. Calcium supplements
B. Phosphate binders
C. Diuretics
D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B. Phosphate binders
Rationale: Phosphate binders (e.g., sevelamer) reduce absorption. Calcium (A) worsens
hypercalcemia, diuretics (C) not specific, erythropoietin (D) for anemia.



Question 6
What is the primary pathophysiological change in Alzheimer's disease?
A. Dopamine depletion
B. Amyloid-beta plaques and tau tangles
C. Serotonin imbalance
D. GABA deficiency
Correct Answer: B. Amyloid-beta plaques and tau tangles
Rationale: Alzheimer's involves amyloid plaques and tau tangles causing neuronal death.
Dopamine (A) is Parkinson's, serotonin (C) depression, GABA (D) anxiety.

, Question 7
A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is a key monitoring parameter?
A. Blood pressure
B. Lactic acidosis
C. QT interval
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B. Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin risks lactic acidosis in renal impairment. BP (A) for antihypertensives,
QT (C) for antipsychotics, platelets (D) for heparin.



Question 8
In heart failure, what is the role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?
A. Vasodilation
B. Sodium retention and vasoconstriction
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Reduced preload
Correct Answer: B. Sodium retention and vasoconstriction
Rationale: RAAS activation causes sodium retention and vasoconstriction, worsening HF.
Vasodilation (A) is opposite, output (C) reduced, preload (D) increased.



Question 9
A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the mechanism?
A. Corticosteroid
B. Beta-2 agonist
C. Mast cell stabilizer
D. Leukotriene inhibitor
Correct Answer: B. Beta-2 agonist
Rationale: Albuterol relaxes bronchial smooth muscle via beta-2 agonism. Corticosteroid (A)
reduces inflammation, mast cell (C) prevents degranulation, leukotriene (D) blocks mediators.



Question 10
What is a common adverse effect of loop diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Ototoxicity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B. Ototoxicity

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