1|Page
NR 602 FINAL EXAM TEST AND A
STUDY GUIDE CONTAINING 200
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2025-
2026 ALREADY GRADED A BRAND
NEW!!
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS
(atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) pap result with
a positive high-risk HPV 16 co-test in a 26-year-old woman without a
history of abnormal Pap smears?
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
A well woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the
following
Correct Answer: A general health history focusing on reproductive
and sexual health concerns (mentors, gynecologic, and pregnancy
related) and psychosocial (Family related, peer related, emotional, and
physical as well as related to abuse, drug use and alcohol use)
concerns
,2|Page
Physical exam, screening test, and immunizations as indicated by the
health history and gynecologic considerations for an extern only
inspection of the genitalia
A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most
consistent with which classification
Correct Answer: CIN 1
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV
infection should have what as follow-up?
Correct Answer: Routine screening
A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap
smear and has had regular screening since age 18. If she has a
normal Pap smear with HPV testing today, when should she have the
next cervical cancer screening
Correct Answer: Five years
,3|Page
A young sexually active client of the family planning clinic is advised to
have a Pap smear. She has never had a Pap smear before. What
should the nurse include in the explanation of this procedure
Correct Answer: The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix
Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear
with a positive HPV screen. Which procedure will be required next
Correct Answer: Repeat Pap and HPV screen
Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to
see if having any future Pap test performed
Correct Answer: Over 55 years of age
You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with
amenorrhea and normal secondary sex characteristics. The purpose of
the progesterone challenge is to a certain the presence of
Correct Answer: Endogenous estrogen
, 4|Page
A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months
she did experience menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual
cycle since. On physical examination, it is noted that she has normal
secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider
progesterone challenge to determine the presence of adequate
Correct Answer: Endogenous estrogen
A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex
characteristics.
The progesterone challenge is ordered. the purpose is to determine
the presence of Correct Answer: Endogenous estrogen
18-year-old female complaining of secondary amenorrhea. On exam,
there is a normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia.
Pregnancy is ruled out what would necessitate further evaluation
Correct Answer: Galactorrhea
Primary amenorrhea is best described as
Correct Answer: Failure to menstrate by 13 years old
NR 602 FINAL EXAM TEST AND A
STUDY GUIDE CONTAINING 200
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2025-
2026 ALREADY GRADED A BRAND
NEW!!
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS
(atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) pap result with
a positive high-risk HPV 16 co-test in a 26-year-old woman without a
history of abnormal Pap smears?
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
A well woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the
following
Correct Answer: A general health history focusing on reproductive
and sexual health concerns (mentors, gynecologic, and pregnancy
related) and psychosocial (Family related, peer related, emotional, and
physical as well as related to abuse, drug use and alcohol use)
concerns
,2|Page
Physical exam, screening test, and immunizations as indicated by the
health history and gynecologic considerations for an extern only
inspection of the genitalia
A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most
consistent with which classification
Correct Answer: CIN 1
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV
infection should have what as follow-up?
Correct Answer: Routine screening
A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap
smear and has had regular screening since age 18. If she has a
normal Pap smear with HPV testing today, when should she have the
next cervical cancer screening
Correct Answer: Five years
,3|Page
A young sexually active client of the family planning clinic is advised to
have a Pap smear. She has never had a Pap smear before. What
should the nurse include in the explanation of this procedure
Correct Answer: The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix
Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear
with a positive HPV screen. Which procedure will be required next
Correct Answer: Repeat Pap and HPV screen
Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to
see if having any future Pap test performed
Correct Answer: Over 55 years of age
You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with
amenorrhea and normal secondary sex characteristics. The purpose of
the progesterone challenge is to a certain the presence of
Correct Answer: Endogenous estrogen
, 4|Page
A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months
she did experience menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual
cycle since. On physical examination, it is noted that she has normal
secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider
progesterone challenge to determine the presence of adequate
Correct Answer: Endogenous estrogen
A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex
characteristics.
The progesterone challenge is ordered. the purpose is to determine
the presence of Correct Answer: Endogenous estrogen
18-year-old female complaining of secondary amenorrhea. On exam,
there is a normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia.
Pregnancy is ruled out what would necessitate further evaluation
Correct Answer: Galactorrhea
Primary amenorrhea is best described as
Correct Answer: Failure to menstrate by 13 years old
