PTA Practice Exam 1 UPDATED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
A physical therapist assistant contemplates the necessary amount of force to overcome
friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction using a non-split traction table. What
percentage of a patient's body weight would be MOST representative of this value? -
CORRECT ANSWER 25%
A physical therapist assistant works with a 75-year-old female that presents with residual
periodic loss of balance secondary to a recent stroke. The patient has minor residual strength
deficits in her affected upper and lower extremities and will need an assistive device for
ambulation. Based on the patient's present status what would be the MOST appropriate
assistive device? - CORRECT ANSWER Rolling walker
A 52-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with right shoulder pathology. The
patient reports a gradual onset of pain beginning six months ago with a progressive loss of
range of motion and strength, most notably in lateral rotation and abduction. The patient
reports an inability to perform a number of activities of daily living including any tasks
requiring the arm to be lifted overhead. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with
this scenario? - CORRECT ANSWER Adhesive capsulitis
During a family meeting in an acute rehabilitation hospital a 26-year-old male with complete
C7 tetraplegia asks a variety of questions about self care and mobility expectations. With an
uncomplicated recovery, the patient can expect lower extremity dressing to be performed
with what level of assist in bed? - CORRECT ANSWER Modified independence
A patient attending her third physical therapy session transitions from a hospital bed to
standing in preparation for ambulation activities. Which blood pressure response would
BEST support the physical therapist assistant's decision to return the patient to a recumbent
position? - CORRECT ANSWER A decrease in systolic blood pressure greater than 20
mm Hg after moving from a supine position to a sitting or standing position or a decrease in
diastolic blood pressure greater than 10 mm Hg is typically indicative of orthostatic
hypotension
A physical therapist assistant is treating an 82-year-old female that lives independently in a
single story house. The therapist uses the Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment
,as a screening tool to determine if the patient is at an increased risk for falling. What is the
PRIMARY method this tool uses to assess fall risk? - CORRECT ANSWER Gait and
balance
single task screening tool used to assess standing balance and risk of falling. A person is
required to stand upright with a static base of support. A yardstick is positioned to measure
the forward distance that a patient can reach without moving the feet. Three trials are
performed and averaged together. A patient that falls below the age appropriate range for
functional reach has an increased risk for falling. - CORRECT ANSWER The
Functional Reach test
is a tool designed to assess a patient's risk for falling. There are fourteen tasks, each scored on
an ordinal scale from 0-4. These tasks include static activities, transitional movements, and
dynamic activities in sitting and standing positions. The maximum score is a 56 with a score
less than 45 indicating an increased risk for falling. This tool can be used as a one-time
examination or as an ongoing tool to monitor a patient who may be at risk for falls. -
CORRECT ANSWER The Berg Balance scale
is a functional performance screening tool used to assess a person's level of mobility and
balance. The person initially sits in a supported chair with a firm surface, transfers to a
standing position, and walks approximately 10 feet. The patient must then turn around
without external support, walk back towards the chair, and return to a sitting position. The
patient is scored based on amount of postural sway, excessive movements, reaching for
support, side stepping or other signs of loss of balance. Patients who are independent can
complete the multi-task process in 10 seconds or less. Patients that require 30 seconds or
more are at a high risk for a fall. - CORRECT ANSWER The Timed Get Up and Go
test
A physical therapist assistant educates a patient about their medical condition during a
physical therapy session. During the discussion, the physical therapist assistant mentions that
most patients experience resolution of symptoms when they stop growing. Which medical
condition is MOST consistent with this scenario? - CORRECT ANSWER Osgood-
Schlatter disease
is a condition characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within the acetabulum. The
condition develops during the last trimester in utero and is often treated with the use of a
harness, bracing, splinting or traction. The malalignment does not resolve with skeletal
,maturity, although it can be effectively treated through conservative or surgical methods. -
CORRECT ANSWER Congenital hip dysplasia
is a self-limiting condition that results from repetitive traction on the tibial tuberosity
apophysis. Symptoms include point tenderness over the patella tendon at the insertion on the
tibial tubercle, antalgic gait, and pain. - CORRECT ANSWER Osgood-Schlatter
disease
is a general term describing pain or discomfort in the anterior knee. Adolescents are at
increased risk for developing patellofemoral syndrome, although reaching skeletal maturity
does not necessarily lead to the resolution of symptoms. - CORRECT
ANSWER Patellofemoral syndrome
is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance in the blood supply
(i.e., avascular necrosis). This type of structural condition does not resolve with skeletal
maturity. - CORRECT ANSWER Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on abdominal strengthening. The physical
therapist assistant attempts to have the patient complete a modified sit-up with their head and
shoulders positioned on a wedge while in supine. What is the MOST likely rationale
associated with the use of the wedge? - CORRECT ANSWER Weak rectus abdominis
A physical therapist assistant discusses fitness parameters with a 30-year-old patient who is
five months pregnant. Assuming the patient has not experienced any complications from her
pregnancy, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate exercise program for the
patient? - CORRECT ANSWER Mild to moderate walking program performed three
times per week
A physical therapist assistant prepares to complete a selected manual muscle test on a patient
with rotator cuff tendonitis by placing the upper extremity in the recommended test position.
The physical therapist assistant determines that the patient is unable to maintain the test
position and slowly allows the arm to sag. Which of the following muscle grades is MOST
consistent with this scenario? - CORRECT ANSWER Fair minus
, this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against gravity with
minimal-moderate resistance. - CORRECT ANSWER good minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against gravity without
manual resistance. - CORRECT ANSWER fair
this grade is characterized by the patient being unable to complete the full available range of
motion against gravity, however, can complete more than half of the range. If placed in the
test position, the patient will have insufficient strength to maintain the position. - CORRECT
ANSWER fair minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion with gravity-eliminated.
- CORRECT ANSWER poor
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient who is rehabilitating from a T2 spinal cord
injury. During the session the patient begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms consistent
with autonomic dysreflexia. What would be the MOST immediate course of action? -
CORRECT ANSWER Assess for obstruction of the urinary catheter line or any
irritating stimuli
A physical therapist assistant employed by a home health agency discusses the established
plan of care with the patient. The patient indicates that he understands what the physical
therapist assistant is recommending, but insists he is not interested in performing active
exercise as part of the program. What would be the MOST appropriate physical therapist
assistant response? - CORRECT ANSWER Explain to the patient why active exercise
is a critical component of the plan of care
A physical therapist assistant treats a 29-year-old male who sustained a superficial partial-
thickness burn to the anterior portion of his left forearm and wrist. Based on the classification
of the burn, what is the MOST likely outcome? - CORRECT ANSWER Painful burns
that present with thickened blisters that heal in less than three weeks
for a patient to safely propel a wheelchair through the doorway, The minimum width required
for a doorway is ___ inches. - CORRECT ANSWER 32 inches
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
A physical therapist assistant contemplates the necessary amount of force to overcome
friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction using a non-split traction table. What
percentage of a patient's body weight would be MOST representative of this value? -
CORRECT ANSWER 25%
A physical therapist assistant works with a 75-year-old female that presents with residual
periodic loss of balance secondary to a recent stroke. The patient has minor residual strength
deficits in her affected upper and lower extremities and will need an assistive device for
ambulation. Based on the patient's present status what would be the MOST appropriate
assistive device? - CORRECT ANSWER Rolling walker
A 52-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with right shoulder pathology. The
patient reports a gradual onset of pain beginning six months ago with a progressive loss of
range of motion and strength, most notably in lateral rotation and abduction. The patient
reports an inability to perform a number of activities of daily living including any tasks
requiring the arm to be lifted overhead. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with
this scenario? - CORRECT ANSWER Adhesive capsulitis
During a family meeting in an acute rehabilitation hospital a 26-year-old male with complete
C7 tetraplegia asks a variety of questions about self care and mobility expectations. With an
uncomplicated recovery, the patient can expect lower extremity dressing to be performed
with what level of assist in bed? - CORRECT ANSWER Modified independence
A patient attending her third physical therapy session transitions from a hospital bed to
standing in preparation for ambulation activities. Which blood pressure response would
BEST support the physical therapist assistant's decision to return the patient to a recumbent
position? - CORRECT ANSWER A decrease in systolic blood pressure greater than 20
mm Hg after moving from a supine position to a sitting or standing position or a decrease in
diastolic blood pressure greater than 10 mm Hg is typically indicative of orthostatic
hypotension
A physical therapist assistant is treating an 82-year-old female that lives independently in a
single story house. The therapist uses the Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment
,as a screening tool to determine if the patient is at an increased risk for falling. What is the
PRIMARY method this tool uses to assess fall risk? - CORRECT ANSWER Gait and
balance
single task screening tool used to assess standing balance and risk of falling. A person is
required to stand upright with a static base of support. A yardstick is positioned to measure
the forward distance that a patient can reach without moving the feet. Three trials are
performed and averaged together. A patient that falls below the age appropriate range for
functional reach has an increased risk for falling. - CORRECT ANSWER The
Functional Reach test
is a tool designed to assess a patient's risk for falling. There are fourteen tasks, each scored on
an ordinal scale from 0-4. These tasks include static activities, transitional movements, and
dynamic activities in sitting and standing positions. The maximum score is a 56 with a score
less than 45 indicating an increased risk for falling. This tool can be used as a one-time
examination or as an ongoing tool to monitor a patient who may be at risk for falls. -
CORRECT ANSWER The Berg Balance scale
is a functional performance screening tool used to assess a person's level of mobility and
balance. The person initially sits in a supported chair with a firm surface, transfers to a
standing position, and walks approximately 10 feet. The patient must then turn around
without external support, walk back towards the chair, and return to a sitting position. The
patient is scored based on amount of postural sway, excessive movements, reaching for
support, side stepping or other signs of loss of balance. Patients who are independent can
complete the multi-task process in 10 seconds or less. Patients that require 30 seconds or
more are at a high risk for a fall. - CORRECT ANSWER The Timed Get Up and Go
test
A physical therapist assistant educates a patient about their medical condition during a
physical therapy session. During the discussion, the physical therapist assistant mentions that
most patients experience resolution of symptoms when they stop growing. Which medical
condition is MOST consistent with this scenario? - CORRECT ANSWER Osgood-
Schlatter disease
is a condition characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within the acetabulum. The
condition develops during the last trimester in utero and is often treated with the use of a
harness, bracing, splinting or traction. The malalignment does not resolve with skeletal
,maturity, although it can be effectively treated through conservative or surgical methods. -
CORRECT ANSWER Congenital hip dysplasia
is a self-limiting condition that results from repetitive traction on the tibial tuberosity
apophysis. Symptoms include point tenderness over the patella tendon at the insertion on the
tibial tubercle, antalgic gait, and pain. - CORRECT ANSWER Osgood-Schlatter
disease
is a general term describing pain or discomfort in the anterior knee. Adolescents are at
increased risk for developing patellofemoral syndrome, although reaching skeletal maturity
does not necessarily lead to the resolution of symptoms. - CORRECT
ANSWER Patellofemoral syndrome
is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance in the blood supply
(i.e., avascular necrosis). This type of structural condition does not resolve with skeletal
maturity. - CORRECT ANSWER Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on abdominal strengthening. The physical
therapist assistant attempts to have the patient complete a modified sit-up with their head and
shoulders positioned on a wedge while in supine. What is the MOST likely rationale
associated with the use of the wedge? - CORRECT ANSWER Weak rectus abdominis
A physical therapist assistant discusses fitness parameters with a 30-year-old patient who is
five months pregnant. Assuming the patient has not experienced any complications from her
pregnancy, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate exercise program for the
patient? - CORRECT ANSWER Mild to moderate walking program performed three
times per week
A physical therapist assistant prepares to complete a selected manual muscle test on a patient
with rotator cuff tendonitis by placing the upper extremity in the recommended test position.
The physical therapist assistant determines that the patient is unable to maintain the test
position and slowly allows the arm to sag. Which of the following muscle grades is MOST
consistent with this scenario? - CORRECT ANSWER Fair minus
, this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against gravity with
minimal-moderate resistance. - CORRECT ANSWER good minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion against gravity without
manual resistance. - CORRECT ANSWER fair
this grade is characterized by the patient being unable to complete the full available range of
motion against gravity, however, can complete more than half of the range. If placed in the
test position, the patient will have insufficient strength to maintain the position. - CORRECT
ANSWER fair minus
this grade is characterized by the patient completing range of motion with gravity-eliminated.
- CORRECT ANSWER poor
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient who is rehabilitating from a T2 spinal cord
injury. During the session the patient begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms consistent
with autonomic dysreflexia. What would be the MOST immediate course of action? -
CORRECT ANSWER Assess for obstruction of the urinary catheter line or any
irritating stimuli
A physical therapist assistant employed by a home health agency discusses the established
plan of care with the patient. The patient indicates that he understands what the physical
therapist assistant is recommending, but insists he is not interested in performing active
exercise as part of the program. What would be the MOST appropriate physical therapist
assistant response? - CORRECT ANSWER Explain to the patient why active exercise
is a critical component of the plan of care
A physical therapist assistant treats a 29-year-old male who sustained a superficial partial-
thickness burn to the anterior portion of his left forearm and wrist. Based on the classification
of the burn, what is the MOST likely outcome? - CORRECT ANSWER Painful burns
that present with thickened blisters that heal in less than three weeks
for a patient to safely propel a wheelchair through the doorway, The minimum width required
for a doorway is ___ inches. - CORRECT ANSWER 32 inches
