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Advanced Pathophysiology NURS 530 Exam 2025

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Advanced Pathophysiology NURS 530 Exam 2025 A patient is diagnosed with a kidney stone that is composed of magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate. What type of urinary calculus is this? A) Calcium B) Struvite C) Uric acid D) Indinavir - Correct Ans-B) Struvite A patient has uncontrolled or premature contractions of the detrusor muscle. Which condition is associated with this medical problem? A) Spinal cord injury B) Immune system dysfunction C) Congestive heart failure D) Renal carcinoma - Correct Ans-A) Spinal cord injury Which statement regarding renal cell carcinoma is correct? A) It is associated with p53. B) Symptoms include painless hematuria. C) Early stages produce a large abdominal mass. D) Granular cell tumors have better prognosis. - Correct Ans-B) Symptoms include painless hematuria. A patient who reports abdominal and back pain has been diagnosed with bacteria in the urine. What is the appropriate term for involvement of the upper urinary tract that is likely to cause such symptoms? A) Cystitis B) Pyelonephritis C) Urinary tract infection D) Asymptomatic bacteriuria - Correct Ans-B) Pyelonephritis With which bacteria is acute glomerulonephritis associated? A) Escherichia coli B) Staphylococcus C) Group A Streptococcus D) Klebsiella - Correct Ans-C) Group A Streptococcus A diabetic child with 4.0 g of protein in her urine each day is experiencing edema and vitamin D deficiency. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A) Nephritic syndrome NUR 530 NUR 530 B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Acute renal failure D) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis - Correct Ans-Nephrotic syndrome A 2-month-old male patient presents with the urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis. Which term is the correct name for this anomaly? A) Hypospadias B) Epispadias C) Exstrophy D) Ureteropelvic junction - Correct Ans-Epispadias A patient presents with wide-set eyes, "parrot beak" nose, low-set ears, and receding chin. What is the renal manifestation associated with this presentation? A) Potter syndrome B) Polycystic kidney disease C) Infundibular stenosis D) Megacalycosis - Correct Ans-Potter syndrome A 6-year-old has just recovered from streptococcal pharyngitis. Which statement regarding this child's acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is true? A) Antibody-antigen complexes of IgM, IgG, and IgA are deposited. B) The exact mechanism of immune complexes is unknown. C) There is decreased vascular permeability. D) No signs of inflammation are present. - Correct Ans-The exact mechanism of immune complexes is unknown. A patient presents with skin lesions as well as hematuria, proteinuria, and abdominal pain. Which is the most likely cause of these symptoms? A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome C) Primary nephrotic syndrome D) Minimal change nephropathy - Correct Ans-Henoch-Schonlein purpura What is the cause of minimal change nephropathy? A) Fusion of the glomerular foot processes B) Verotoxin of E. coli C) IgA deposition D) Inflammation of the glomeruli - Correct Ans-Fusion of the glomerular foot processes A child whose kidneys are enlarged presents with chills, fever, and abdominal pain. The most likely diagnosis is: A) acute pyelonephritis. B) vesicoureteral reflux. C) urinary tract infection. D) enuresis. - Correct Ans-acute pyelonephritis NUR 530 NUR 530 What are the major causes of bladder outlet obstruction? A) Urethral valves and polyps B) Kidney stones and Wilms' tumor C) Kidney stones and warts D) Urethral valves and warts - Correct Ans-Urethral valves and polyps Which conditions are complications of a horseshoe kidney? (select all that apply) A) Hydronephrosis B) Hypospadias C) Infection D) Stone formation E) Enuresis - Correct Ans-Hydronephrosis Infection Stone formation The development of which characteristic is the first sign of puberty in females? A) Menarche B) Pubic hair C) Thelarche D) Dysmenorrhea - Correct Ans-Thelarche Which term describes painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles? A) Primary dysmenorrhea B) Primary amenorrhea C) Secondary dysmenorrhea D) Secondary amenorrhea - Correct Ans-Primary dysmenorrhea Which condition must be ruled out when identifying the cause of secondary amenorrhea? A) Abnormal thyroid function B) Irregular prolactin production C) Pituitary gland dysfunction D) Unknown pregnancy - Correct Ans-Unknown pregnancy A 24-year-old female presents with severe abdominal pain and fever that is believed to be a result of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) stemming from a Chlamydia trachomatis infection. Which question will most likely identify the cause of her symptoms? A) "Is your abdominal pain affected by walking?" B) "Have you been experiencing nausea and vomiting as well?" C) "Is constipation a problem for you?" D) "Would you describe your pain as being stabbing?" - Correct Ans-Is your abdominal pain affected by walking? NUR 530 NUR 530 A patient presents with an inflammation of one of the ducts that lead from the introitus. What is the appropriate term for this condition? A) Vaginitis B) Cervicitis C) Bartholinitis D) Vulvovestibulitis - Correct Ans-Bartholinitis A patient has been diagnosed with a moderately large cystocele. What information would the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? A) Isometric exercises will help strengthen the pubococcygeal muscles. B) The symptoms will increase during menstruation. C) The condition causes urinary stress incontinence. D) This condition contributes to chronic constipation. - Correct Ans-Isometric exercises will help strengthen the pubococcygeal muscles. Which female is at greatest risk for developing a benign ovarian cyst? A) A 26-year-old with regular menstrual cycle B) A 48-year-old diagnosed as premenopausal C) A 13-year-old experiencing delayed puberty D) A 70-year-old diagnosed with a cystocele - Correct Ans-A 48-year-old diagnosed as premenopausal Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized with the presence of: A) amenorrhea. B) hypotension. C) low cholesterol level. D) hypoandrogenism. - Correct Ans-amenorrhea Which statement is TRUE regarding breast cancer? A) The older the age at a woman's first childbirth, the lower the risk. B) It is the second most common cause of cancer in women. C) The incidence has been declining since 1955. D) Hispanic women have the highest mortality rate. - Correct Ans-Hispanic women have the highest mortality rate Which is the most important difference between proliferative and nonproliferative breast tissue changes? A) Genetic aberrations are more common in nonproliferative lesions. B) Cancer prognosis is better for nonproliferative breast tissue changes. C) Nonproliferative breast lesions do not increase the risk of breast cancer. D) Cancer resulting from nonproliferative breast lesions has a higher cure rate. - Correct Ans-Nonproliferative breast lesions do not increase the risk of breast cancer Which of the following is not a common cause of galactorrhea in women? A) Pregnancy B) Medications NUR 530 NUR 530 C) Hypothyroidism D) Pituitary tumor - Correct Ans-Pregnancy Which of the following is considered a risk factor for vaginal cancer? A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) B) Endometriosis C) Concurrent breast cancer D) Birth control pills - Correct Ans-Human papillomavirus (HPV) When ruling out endometrial cancer, the client should be informed that: A) symptomatology is evaluated as the basis for diagnosis. B) a uterine lining depth of less than 8 mm rules out this diagnosis. C) she will be scheduled for a biopsy of the endometrial tissue. D) the use of combined hormonal contraception is a risk factor for this pathology. - Correct Ans-she will be scheduled for a biopsy of the endometrial tissue. A male patient presents with inflammation of the glans penis. Which term correctly describes this condition? A) Phimosis B) Paraphimosis C) Priapism D) Balanitis - Correct Ans-Balanitis A male patient, diagnosed with a scrotal disorder, describes the resulting feeling like a "bag of worms in there." Which condition is supported by the client's statement? A) Varicocele B) Hydrocele C) Spermatocele D) Cryptorchidism - Correct Ans-Varicocele A young adult male is diagnosed with orchitis after reporting pain in his testes. Which assessment question demonstrates an understanding of the etiology of this condition? A) "Have you ever had the mumps?" B) "Are you prone to prolonged erections?" C) "Has your sperm count ever been tested?" D) "Have you ever been diagnosed with candidiasis?" - Correct Ans-Have you ever had the mumps? Which statement regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is TRUE? A) Ten percent of men will have it by age 80 years. B) It is an uncommon condition. C) The prostate is largest at birth and continues to shrink. D) It may be problematic if urethral compression occurs. - Correct Ans-It may be problematic if urethral compression occurs NUR 530 NUR 530 A young adult reports an abnormal curvature of his penis that has existed since puberty but is getting worse and that intercourse is painful. The client's statement supports which diagnosis? A) Peyronie disease B) Orchitis C) Phimosis D) Paraphimosis - Correct Ans-Peyronie disease A sexually active male reports unilateral pain in his scrotum. Assessment findings include a red and swollen, tender area on his scrotum. Which diagnosis is supported by this data? A) Balanitis B) Paraphimosis C) Epididymitis D) Benign prostate hypertrophy - Correct Ans-Epididymitis Which reason is the primary contributor to the continued spread of sexually transmitted diseases? A) Reluctance to identify sexual partners B) Fear of being held legally responsive C) People unaware they are infected D) Failure of healthcare providers to notify authorities - Correct Ans-People unaware they are infected Which statement is true regarding gynecomastia in men? A) It may begin as a palpable mass anywhere on the chest. B) It affects less than 3% of the male population. C) Incidence is greatest among adolescents and older men. D) It generally indicates cancer. - Correct Ans-Incidence is greatest among adolescents and older men Which statement is TRUE regarding the act of retching? A) It begins with a shallow respiration. B) Hypersalivation and tachycardia are common. C) The esophagus becomes distended. D) Reverse peristalsis seldom occurs. - Correct Ans-The esophagus becomes distended A patient experiences increased mucosal discharge of chloride- or bicarbonate-rich fluid. Which of the following types of diarrhea is this? A) Osmotic B) Secretory C) Motility D) Parasitic - Correct Ans-Secretory NUR 530 NUR 530 A patient experiences abdominal pain that is very localized and intense. Which type of pain does this describe? A) Parietal B) Visceral C) Referred D) Phantom - Correct Ans-Parietal A client is diagnosed with hematochezia. Which assessment finding confirms this diagnosis? A) Bloody vomitus B) Bright red rectal bleeding C) Presence of tarry stools D) Positive testing for occult blood - Correct Ans-Bright red rectal bleeding Which question assesses a possible cause of achalasia? A) "Are you chronically constipated?" B) "What types of high fiber foods do you eat?" C) "Do you become 'gassy' after meals?" D) "Have you ever been told you have problems with your esophagus?" - Correct Ans Have you ever been told you have problems with your esophagus? Which statement is true regarding hiatal hernia? A) A mixed hernia is the most common type. B) The least common type is a paraesophageal hernia. C) Paraesophageal hernia is herniation of the greater curvature of the stomach. D) A sliding hernia is triggered by standing and frequent meals. - Correct Ans Paraesophageal hernia is herniation of the greater curvature of the stomach. H. pylori is discovered in the GI tract of a client experiencing an inflammation of the gastric mucosa. Which findings support this diagnosis? A) Chronic diarrhea B) Paralytic ileus C) Chronic antral gastritis D) Pyloric obstruction - Correct Ans-Chronic antral gastritis Which of the following regarding chronic gastritis is true? A) There are four types. B) Type A, or fundal gastritis, is the most severe. C) Type B, or antral gastritis, is the most rare. D) It tends to occur in young individuals. - Correct Ans-Type A, or fundal gastritis, is the most severe. A patient experiences chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area when the stomach is empty and in the middle of the night. This history supports a diagnosis of: A) acute gastritis. B) chronic gastritis. NUR 530 NUR 530 C) gastric ulcer. D) duodenal ulcer. - Correct Ans-duodenal ulcer. A client is diagnosed with a Cushing ulcer. Which assessment finding supports this diagnosis? A) Third-degree burns over 20% of the body B) Profound septicemia with high fever C) Severe head trauma resulting from auto accident D) Massive internal trauma as a result of a fall - Correct Ans-Severe head trauma resulting from auto accident The poor absorption of vitamin A can result in: A) osteoporosis. B) neurologic deficiencies. C) night blindness. D) petechiae. - Correct Ans-night blindness Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding ulcerative colitis? A) It extends throughout the entire GI tract. B) It generally appears in childhood. C) Women are more affected than men D) Bloody, purulent diarrhea is a common symptom. - Correct Ans-Bloody, purulent diarrhea is a common symptom Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding Crohn disease? A) It involves the mucosa only. B) Skip lesions are common. C) It affects only the rectum. D) The most common site is the rectum. - Correct Ans-Skip lesions are common A 20-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain, fever, and loss of appetite. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his abdominal discomfort? A) Diverticulosis B) Diverticulitis C) Appendicitis D) Mesenteric venous thrombosis - Correct Ans-Appendicitis Which assessment observation supports a diagnosis of portal hypertension due to liver disease? A) Hematemesis B) Abdominal pain from splenomegaly C) Ascites D) Altered mental status - Correct Ans-Hematemesis Which occurs as the result of hemolysis of a hematoma from a traumatic injury? A) There is a decrease in conjugated bilirubin. NUR 530 NUR 530 B) Increased amounts of unconjugated bilirubin occur. C) Bilirubin is excreted in the urine. D) Hemolysis is identical to obstructive jaundice. - Correct Ans-Increased amounts of unconjugated bilirubin occur A patient is diagnosed with hepatitis A. Transmission of this form of hepatitis occurs via: A) fecal-oral route. B) infected blood or body fluids. C) sexual contact. D) intravenous drug use. - Correct Ans-fecal-oral route. Which stage of hepatitis is characterized by jaundice, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting? A) Prodromal phase B) Icteric phase C) Recovery phase D) Chronic active hepatitis - Correct Ans-Prodromal phase A client presents with epigastric pain, which radiates to the back, and vomiting. Hyperglycemia and tachycardia are noted. Client reports being "a heavy drinker but never had problems like this before." Which disease process is supported by this client's symptoms? A) Cholelithiasis B) Cholecystitis C) Acute pancreatitis D) Appendicitis - Correct Ans-Acute pancreatitis Which statement is TRUE regarding cancer of the colon? A) It is the most frequent cause of cancer death. B) It accounts for 25% of all cancer deaths. C) It tends to occur in young individuals less than 30 years of age. D) Treatment will include surgical resection of the colon. - Correct Ans-Treatment will include surgical resection of the colon Colorectal cancer limited to the bowel wall is characteristic of which stage of cancer? A) Stage A B) Stage B C) Stage C D) Stage D - Correct Ans-Stage A Which statement is TRUE regarding the anomaly that results in a cleft lip? A) The incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process B) Occurs in about 10 in 1000 births C) Increased incidence in black populations D) Increased incidence in females - Correct Ans-The incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process NUR 530 NUR 530 Which term is used to identify the condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch? A) Esophageal atresia B) Tracheoesophageal fistula C) Pyloric stenosis D) Malrotation - Correct Ans-Esophageal atresia Which statement regarding infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS) is TRUE? A) It results in diarrhea. B) Most commonly observed in children aged 6-8 months. C) Characterized by forceful postprandial vomiting. D) Apathy is a common characteristic. - Correct Ans-Characterized by forceful postprandial vomiting. Which disease is associated with meconium ileus? A) Cleft palate B) Sickle cell disease C) Cystic fibrosis D) Esophageal atresia - Correct Ans-Cystic fibrosis A patient has impacted feces and constipation. The cause of the

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NUR 530




Advanced Pathophysiology NURS 530
Exam 2025

A patient is diagnosed with a kidney stone that is composed of magnesium, ammonium,
and phosphate. What type of urinary calculus is this?
A) Calcium
B) Struvite
C) Uric acid
D) Indinavir - Correct Ans-B) Struvite

A patient has uncontrolled or premature contractions of the detrusor muscle. Which
condition is associated with this medical problem?
A) Spinal cord injury
B) Immune system dysfunction
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Renal carcinoma - Correct Ans-A) Spinal cord injury

Which statement regarding renal cell carcinoma is correct?
A) It is associated with p53.
B) Symptoms include painless hematuria.
C) Early stages produce a large abdominal mass.
D) Granular cell tumors have better prognosis. - Correct Ans-B) Symptoms include
painless hematuria.

A patient who reports abdominal and back pain has been diagnosed with bacteria in the
urine. What is the appropriate term for involvement of the upper urinary tract that is
likely to cause such symptoms?
A) Cystitis
B) Pyelonephritis
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Asymptomatic bacteriuria - Correct Ans-B) Pyelonephritis

With which bacteria is acute glomerulonephritis associated?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus
C) Group A Streptococcus
D) Klebsiella - Correct Ans-C) Group A Streptococcus

A diabetic child with 4.0 g of protein in her urine each day is experiencing edema and
vitamin D deficiency. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
NUR 530

,NUR 530


B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Acute renal failure
D) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis - Correct Ans-Nephrotic syndrome

A 2-month-old male patient presents with the urethral opening on the dorsal surface of
the penis. Which term is the correct name for this anomaly?
A) Hypospadias
B) Epispadias
C) Exstrophy
D) Ureteropelvic junction - Correct Ans-Epispadias

A patient presents with wide-set eyes, "parrot beak" nose, low-set ears, and receding
chin. What is the renal manifestation associated with this presentation?
A) Potter syndrome
B) Polycystic kidney disease
C) Infundibular stenosis
D) Megacalycosis - Correct Ans-Potter syndrome

A 6-year-old has just recovered from streptococcal pharyngitis. Which statement
regarding this child's acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is true?
A) Antibody-antigen complexes of IgM, IgG, and IgA are deposited.
B) The exact mechanism of immune complexes is unknown.
C) There is decreased vascular permeability.
D) No signs of inflammation are present. - Correct Ans-The exact mechanism of
immune complexes is unknown.

A patient presents with skin lesions as well as hematuria, proteinuria, and abdominal
pain. Which is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C) Primary nephrotic syndrome
D) Minimal change nephropathy - Correct Ans-Henoch-Schonlein purpura

What is the cause of minimal change nephropathy?
A) Fusion of the glomerular foot processes
B) Verotoxin of E. coli
C) IgA deposition
D) Inflammation of the glomeruli - Correct Ans-Fusion of the glomerular foot processes

A child whose kidneys are enlarged presents with chills, fever, and abdominal pain. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A) acute pyelonephritis.
B) vesicoureteral reflux.
C) urinary tract infection.
D) enuresis. - Correct Ans-acute pyelonephritis

NUR 530

,NUR 530


What are the major causes of bladder outlet obstruction?
A) Urethral valves and polyps
B) Kidney stones and Wilms' tumor
C) Kidney stones and warts
D) Urethral valves and warts - Correct Ans-Urethral valves and polyps

Which conditions are complications of a horseshoe kidney? (select all that apply)
A) Hydronephrosis
B) Hypospadias
C) Infection
D) Stone formation
E) Enuresis - Correct Ans-Hydronephrosis
Infection
Stone formation

The development of which characteristic is the first sign of puberty in females?
A) Menarche
B) Pubic hair
C) Thelarche
D) Dysmenorrhea - Correct Ans-Thelarche

Which term describes painful menstruation associated with the release of
prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles?
A) Primary dysmenorrhea
B) Primary amenorrhea
C) Secondary dysmenorrhea
D) Secondary amenorrhea - Correct Ans-Primary dysmenorrhea

Which condition must be ruled out when identifying the cause of secondary
amenorrhea?
A) Abnormal thyroid function
B) Irregular prolactin production
C) Pituitary gland dysfunction
D) Unknown pregnancy - Correct Ans-Unknown pregnancy

A 24-year-old female presents with severe abdominal pain and fever that is believed to
be a result of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) stemming from a Chlamydia
trachomatis infection. Which question will most likely identify the cause of her
symptoms?
A) "Is your abdominal pain affected by walking?"
B) "Have you been experiencing nausea and vomiting as well?"
C) "Is constipation a problem for you?"
D) "Would you describe your pain as being stabbing?" - Correct Ans-Is your abdominal
pain affected by walking?



NUR 530

, NUR 530


A patient presents with an inflammation of one of the ducts that lead from the introitus.
What is the appropriate term for this condition?
A) Vaginitis
B) Cervicitis
C) Bartholinitis
D) Vulvovestibulitis - Correct Ans-Bartholinitis

A patient has been diagnosed with a moderately large cystocele. What information
would the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
A) Isometric exercises will help strengthen the pubococcygeal muscles.
B) The symptoms will increase during menstruation.
C) The condition causes urinary stress incontinence.
D) This condition contributes to chronic constipation. - Correct Ans-Isometric exercises
will help strengthen the pubococcygeal muscles.

Which female is at greatest risk for developing a benign ovarian cyst?
A) A 26-year-old with regular menstrual cycle
B) A 48-year-old diagnosed as premenopausal
C) A 13-year-old experiencing delayed puberty
D) A 70-year-old diagnosed with a cystocele - Correct Ans-A 48-year-old diagnosed as
premenopausal

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized with the presence of:
A) amenorrhea.
B) hypotension.
C) low cholesterol level.
D) hypoandrogenism. - Correct Ans-amenorrhea

Which statement is TRUE regarding breast cancer?
A) The older the age at a woman's first childbirth, the lower the risk.
B) It is the second most common cause of cancer in women.
C) The incidence has been declining since 1955.
D) Hispanic women have the highest mortality rate. - Correct Ans-Hispanic women have
the highest mortality rate

Which is the most important difference between proliferative and nonproliferative breast
tissue changes?
A) Genetic aberrations are more common in nonproliferative lesions.
B) Cancer prognosis is better for nonproliferative breast tissue changes.
C) Nonproliferative breast lesions do not increase the risk of breast cancer.
D) Cancer resulting from nonproliferative breast lesions has a higher cure rate. - Correct
Ans-Nonproliferative breast lesions do not increase the risk of breast cancer

Which of the following is not a common cause of galactorrhea in women?
A) Pregnancy
B) Medications
NUR 530

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