Compiled ASP Exam Study Guide |Multiple Choices| *Q&A* (100% Correct) 2025/2026 |VERIFIED|

Compiled ASP Exam Study Guide |Multiple Choices| *Q&A* (100% Correct) 2025/2026 |VERIFIED| Which of the following poses a significant business risk for an organization? A. Investing in new safety equipment for employees B. The introduction of new regulations impacting the product C. Launching new employee training initiatives D. A change in the organization’s leadership B. The introduction of new regulations impacting the product What is a shared core value in professional ethics across various specialties in the safety, health, and environmental fields? A. Managing hazardous substances B. Complying with regulations C. Maintaining individual professional competency D. Earning certification C. Maintaining individual professional competency What are the four fundamental principles that should form the basis of a well-constructed security system? A. Prevent, detect, train, react B. Prevent, detect, delay, react C. Prevent, detect, delay, call D. Recognize, act, identify, react B. Prevent, detect, delay, react According to the BCSP’s ethical code, which group must adhere to its guidelines? A. Only safety professionals employed by government agencies 1 B. Individuals holding certifications issued by ABSA C. All professionals with a degree in safety D. Holders of certifications granted by BCSP D. Holders of certifications granted by BCSP What should you do if you receive a complaint from an employee who seems to be targeting another individual unfairly? A. Dismiss the complaint as unfounded B. Immediately discipline the complainant C. Reject the complaint and share the information with other employees D. Treat the complaint as legitimate until the company’s investigation concludes D. Treat the complaint as legitimate until the company’s investigation concludes The Behavior Theory is commonly referred to as behavior-based safety. What is one of the core principles of this theory? A. Ethics B. Planning C. Intervention D. Research method C. Intervention What term refers to the process of identifying problems and solutions by organizing information into an existing or new concept? A. Conceptual thinking B. Conceptual seeking C. Achievement seeking D. Analytical thinking A. Conceptual thinking 2 What is a common strategy for multinational corporations to navigate the complexities of differing national laws? A. Make all operations comply with the strictest laws where the corporate office is located B. Lobby for global law changes to make all regulations uniform C. Ensure operations follow the least restrictive law D. Operate in compliance with the laws of the countries where branches are situated D. Operate in compliance with the laws of the countries where branches are situated What training approach involves participants generating ideas through group interaction, without lectures or slideshows? A. Fishbowl B. Brainstorming C. Icebreaker D. Ad lib B. Brainstorming What factor is typically the most important when determining the assignment of safety personnel within an organization? A. The potential severity of injuries within the organization B. The industry type the organization operates in C. The severity of past incidents D. The frequency of incidents within the organization A. The potential severity of injuries within the organization Which is the most effective method for confirming learning outcomes from a training program? A. Achieving learning objectives B. Practical exam results C. Overall program attendance D. Written test scores A. Achieving learning objectives 3 What term is used to describe an approach to adult learning where learners take the lead in the learning process? A. Pedagogy B. Tactile C. Kinesthetic D. Andragogy D. Andragogy What leadership style tends to have the greatest positive impact on employee satisfaction when dealing with difficult or frustrating tasks? A. Supportive B. Achievement-oriented C. Participative D. Contingency A. Supportive What is the initial step when evaluating the necessity of a training program? A. Develop learning objectives B. Design the training curriculum C. Conduct a training needs assessment D. Evaluate the trainers C. Conduct a training needs assessment Which elements are essential to an effective health and safety performance management system? A. Auditing, reviewing, policy, organizing, planning, and measuring performance B. Policy, organizing, planning, and measuring performance C. Measuring performance, reviewing performance, and auditing near-misses D. Planning, organizing, policy, and reviewing performance 4 A. Auditing, reviewing, policy, organizing, planning, and measuring performance What is considered a critical element for the SH&E profession’s role within organizations? A. Recognition by other SH&E professionals B. Education aligned with national policies C. Education based on a defined body of knowledge D. Recognition by local government C. Education based on a defined body of knowledge What are the five stages of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model? A. Risk assessment, evaluation, behavior, results, and ROI B. Job hazard analysis, learning, behavior, results, and ROI C. Reaction, learning, information-centered, results, and ROI D. Reaction, learning, behavior, results, and ROI D. Reaction, learning, behavior, results, and ROI Which evaluation method focuses on assessing the effectiveness of a training program during its development phase? A. Kirkpatrick's B. Summative C. Formative D. Informative C. Formative Which pre-delivery training component includes front-end analysis, task analysis, Delphi technique, and individual needs? A. Active learning B. Passive learning C. Training needs assessment 5 D. Kirkpatrick's evaluation model C. Training needs assessment What is a common feature of an effective health and safety program? A. Responsibility assigned to managers, supervisors, and employees B. Responsibility assigned to managers, supervisors, and customers C. Responsibility assigned to supervisors, employees, and customers D. Responsibility assigned to managers, employees, and customers A. Responsibility assigned to managers, supervisors, and employees Which is a primary requirement in typical land disposal regulations for hazardous waste? A. Prohibiting disposal of hazardous waste on land without prior treatment B. Prohibiting disposal of hazardous waste on land C. Prohibiting disposal of hazardous waste on land if greater than 1000 lb (453.59 kg) D. Prohibiting disposal of hazardous waste on land if greater than 100 lb (45.35 kg) A. Prohibiting disposal of hazardous waste on land without prior treatment The acronym PDCA relates to an approach for environmental management systems. What does PDCA mean? A. Plan, Do, Check, Assess B. Plan, Delegate, Check, Act C. Plan, Do, Create, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Act Which is always the HIGHEST priority at a hazardous material incident? A. Protection of the life and safety of the public B. Protection of critical systems of production 6 C. Protection of the environment and climate D. Protection of organization's critical property A. Protection of the life and safety of the public The development of which system accelerated pollution prevention outcomes? A. Clean Air System B. Environmental Management System C. Conservation and Recovery System D. Environment Sustainable System B. Environmental Management System The 2011 earthquakes in Japan, which resulted in tsunamis, have raised major concerns for the countries along the north-eastern coasts of the Pacific Ocean. Which is the identified concern? A. Tons of debris washing ashore B. Oil pollutants damaging their shores C. Foreign species of marine life being transported to their shores D. Hazardous materials reaching their shores their shores C. Foreign species of marine life being transported to Which is the PRIMARY source of freshwater on the planet? A. Reservoirs B. Lakes C. Rivers D. Precipitation D. Precipitation Which type of air sampling method involves the collection of one or more personal air samples in order to estimate a worker's 8-hour time-weighted average exposure? A. Area sampling 7 B. Integrated sampling C. Personal sampling D. Grab sampling B. Integrated sampling Which is considered a bio-hazardous waste? A. Irrigation return flows from farms B. Waste from a laboratory that works with tritium C. 10% formalin waste from a hospital D. Waste from a laboratory that works with prions prions D. Waste from a laboratory that works with Which is a MINIMUM recommended practice for handling human and primate cells in a laboratory setting? A. Biosafety Level-2 practices and containment B. Biosafety Level-4 practices and containment C. Biosafety Level-3 practices and containment D. Biosafety Level-1 practices and containment A. Biosafety Level-2 practices and containment Which is the recommended biosafety level for initial processing of bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV? A. Biosafety level-1 B. Biosafety level-3 C. Biosafety level-2 D. Biosafety level-4 C. Biosafety level-2 Which is a physical or chemical agent that changes the genetic material (usually DNA) of an organism above the natural background level? 8 A. Co-carcinogen B. Carcinogen C. Teratogen D. Mutagen D. Mutagen Which is the MOST common route of exposure of biological agents (indigenous or exotic) that are handled at biosafety level-3? A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Absorption D. Injection B. Inhalation Which is an example of a biological agent that can be transmitted via inhalation? A. Ebola B. Hepatitis B C. Human immunodeficiency virus D. High pathogenic avian influenza D. High pathogenic avian influenza In a laboratory setting, which is the recommended biosafety level for manipulating prions from human t issue and human prions propagated in animals? A. Biosafety level-2 B. Biosafety level-1 C. Biosafety level-3 D. Biosafety level-4 A. Biosafety level-2 9 Which is the acceptable average exposure over a short period of time, usually 15 minutes, as long as the t ime-weighted average is not exceeded? A. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) B. Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL) C. Action Level D. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) B. Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL) Which occupational disease can be caused by chronic exposure to mercury? A. Bone disorders B. Neuropsychiatric disorders C. Hair and skin pigmentation disorders D. Interstitial lung disorders B. Neuropsychiatric disorders Which is one of the target organs for formaldehyde? A. Kidneys B. Spleen C. Lungs D. Liver C. Lungs Which is the process of estimating or measuring the magnitude, frequency, and duration of exposure to an agent, along with the number and characteristics of the population exposed? A. Exposure determination B. Exposure assessment C. Exposure quantification D. Exposure control plan B. Exposure assessment 10 Which is considered a medical emergency? A. Heat stroke B. Heat syncope C. Heat cramps D. Heat rash A. Heat stroke Various chemicals react differently with other chemicals and also have varying effects on humans and animals in these different combinations. The combined effect of two chemicals is much greater than the sum of the effect of each agent acting independently. Which term describes this reaction? A. Antagonistic B. Potentiating C. Synergistic D. Additive C. Synergistic A sample of Ac-225 originally contained 8.0 micrograms. The half-life of Ac-225 is 10 days. After 720 hours, how much of the original Ac-225 would remain? A. 3.0 micrograms B. 1.0 micrograms C. 4.0 micrograms D. 2.0 micrograms B. 1.0 micrograms Which workers are MOST at risk from violence at work? A. Doctors B. Police officers C. Drivers 11 D. Clerks B. Police officers Which should the command staff positions include under the incident command system? A. Safety officer, public information officer, and liaison officer B. Logistics section chief, safety officer, and contracting officer C. Liaison officer, operations section chief, and finance section chief D. Public information officer, chief executive officer, and safety officer information officer, and liaison officer Which formula is used to determine risks associated with an event? A. Risk = probability × severity × estimate of response time B. Risk = probability × severity C. Risk = probability ÷ severity D. Risk = severity ÷ probability B. Risk = probability × severity A. Safety officer, public Which is a PRIMARY preparedness strategy for a workplace when planning for an imminent chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear (CBRNE) attack? A. Rely on local first responders B. Large central personal protective equipment inventory C. Evacuation D. Shelter in place D. Shelter in place Which is a contributing factor in one-third of all workplace violence-related incidents? A. Offenders have past criminal history. B. Offenders are under the influence of narcotics. 12 C. Offenders are under the influence of alcohol. D. Offenders are over the age of 60. C. Offenders are under the influence of alcohol. Which is important during the pre-incident planning process for a fixed facility? A. Discussion of training and exercise requirements involving all responders B. Discussion of training and exercise requirements with the fire department C. Focus on HAZWOPER rather than all regulations pertaining to hazardous materials D. Focus on the training needs of the employees requirements involving all responders A. Discussion of training and exercise With regard to workplace incidents involving aggressive behavior, violence is the final act in what can be called the aggression continuum, which progresses through a series of escalating phases. Which is the FINAL phase in this continuum? A. Crisis B. Anxiety C. Intimidation D. Stress A. Crisis Vulnerability assessments typically focus on which threat or hazard? A. Waste disposal B. Terrorism C. Floods D. Earthquakes B. Terrorism Emergencies can arise in an organization or a workplace at any time, from many different causes. Which is the BEST safety management tool for minimizing incidents in a workplace? 13 A. Purchase high-quality safety equipment. B. Have a good relationship with emergency responders. C. Screen employment candidates before hiring them. D. Have a written comprehensive management plan. management plan. half life calculation formula k= disintegration constant Total Sound Level Calculation t1/2=ln2/k D. Have a written comprehensive dBsum=10log(10^(L1/10) + 10^(L2/10) + .....) L= individual sound levels In statistical terms, a process that achieves Six Sigma quality will generate about: Mode = Most frequent Median = Middle value Range = Difference between large & small number Population standard deviation - the spread of data Noise Attenuation Calculation NRR - Noise reduction rating Af= (NRR-7)/2 + 5 Mean = Average When there are 2 NRRs, use the highest in the formula and add 5 dB for the second NRR ppm calculation ppm = ((mg/m^3) x 24.45)/MW MW = molecular weight 14 Ventilation Calculation (Total Pressure) TP = SP + VP TP = total pressure SP = static pressure VP = velocity pressure Ventilation Calculation (Cubic feet / revolutions per minute) Volume of a cube formula Time Weighted Average Calculation Absolute Units Pressure: PSI + 14.7 (1 atm) = PSIA Temperature: °C + 273 = °K °F + 460 = °R Temperature Conversions °K = °C + 273 °R = °F + 460 Combined Gas Law *Must be in absolute units* Volume of a Tank (CFM1)/(CFM2) = (RPM1)/(RPM2) V = L x W x H TWA = ((C1xT1) + (C2xT2) + ......) / T1 + T2 + ..... °C = (°F - 32) / 1.8 P1V1/T1=P2V2/T2 V = π x r² x h 15 Area of a Triange Resistance of a Series Resistance in Parallel A = 1/2 x b x h R = R1 + R2 + R3 + ... 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 Electrical Calculation for Voltage V=Voltage I=Current (amps) R=Resistance (ohms) Area of a Rectange Area of a Circle A = L x W A=πr² Electrical Calculation for Power P=Power V=Voltage I=Current Force Calculation m= mass F = m x a a= acceleration (a= (Vf-Vi)/t) V = I x R P = V x I 16 Acceleration Calculation a= (Vf-Vi)/t Velocity Calculation V² = V0² + 2as s = distance traveled Distance Traveled Heat Stress Calculation V = V0 + at s = (V0² x t) + 1/2 at² WBGT = 0.7WB + 0.3GT WBGT= 0.7WB + 0.2GT + 0.1DB Total Recordable Injury Rate Unit Conversions TRIR = (# of recordables x 200,000) / hours worked 1 inch = 2.54 cm 1 foot = 0.3048 m (1 meter = 3.28 feet) 1 mile = 1.6 km (1 mile = 5280 feet) 1 lb = 0.4536 kg (1 kg = 2.2 lbs) 1 gal = 3.78 L 1 L = 1.06 qt = 61.02 in^3 = 0.3531 ft^3 = 0.26 gal 7.48 gal = 1 ft^3 Water = 8.34 lb/gal 1 atm - 14.7 PSI 1 mph - 1.47 ft/sec Total Sound Lpt = Lpi + 10logN Right Triangle Angles SOH CAH TOA 17 Triangle Calculations Standard Distribution Curve NIOSH Lifting Equation LC = Load constant a² + b² = c² RWL = LC x HM x VM x DM x AM x FM x CM H = horizontal distance of hands from midpoint between the ankles V = vertical distance of the hand from the floor D = vertical travel distance between origin and destination A = angular displacement of the load from the sagittal plane in degrees F = average frequency of lifts per minute C = coupling or handle adequacy Workers Compensation Premium MR = manual rate EMR = experience modifier rate Radioactivity Calculation WCP = (#employees x (avg. salary/$100)) x MR x EMR N = N0e^-kt N0 = radioactivity at original time t = time elapsed k = disintegration constant e = euler's number Financial Calculations F = P(1+i)^n 18 P = F(1+i)^-n F = A ((1+i)^n - 1) / i Combination Calculation nCr = (n!)/(k!(n-k)!) ORDER: nPr = (n!)/(n-k)! n = number in population NO ORDER: k = number of things taken each time Radiation Calculation S = roentgens/hour/foot Ci = curies E = energy (MEV) F = fractional yield S=6CiEf TLV Mix with additive effects Noise Level at Distance D1 TLVmix = (C1/TLV1) + (C2/TLV2) + .... dB1 = dB0 + 20log(D0/D1) Lifting Index L = Load LI = L / RWL RWL = Recommended Load Weight 19 pH Scale Ranges 0-14 7 = neutral Logarithmic - 1 pH unit = X10 more H+/OH- ions General Adaptation Syndrome alarm, resistance and exhaustion The concept that the body responds to stress with 3 phases - Categories for Minimizing Radiation Exposure Bacteria Time, Distance, and Shielding Single celled microbes. There is no nucleus or membrane bound organelles. Examples include whooping cough, strep throat, ear infection, syphilis, tuberculosis, cholera, botulism, tetanus, anthrax Virus Smaller than bacteria and are not cells. They are made up of a piece of genetic material such as DNA or RNA that's enclosed in a coat of protein. They need a host to multiply. Examples include the common cold, flu, measles, rubella, chickenpox, Ebola, rabies, zika, herpes Anchorage Support Requirements Free Fall Distance 5000 pounds per employee attached D ring above anchor - Free fall distance = lanyard length + distance from D-ring to anchor D ring below anchor - Free fall distance = lanyard length - distance from D-ring to anchor Clearance Distance for Fall Protection Clearance Distance = Free Fall Distance + Deceleration Distance (lanyard stretch 3.5') + D-Ring Shift (1') + Back D-Ring Height (5') + 2' safety factor = 13.5' Metric System Table Boolean Logic OR gate = Add 20 AND gate = Multiply HAZOP (Hazard operability study) Analysis A qualitative tool that relies on a team of SMEs and a leader familiar with the analysis process. Complex processes are broken down into smaller sub systems known as nodes. This process uses guide words such as increase or decrease to identify risk Fishbone Diagram Visual way to look at cause and effect. Helps with brainstorming to identity possible causes of a problem and in sorting ideas into useful categories Risk The product of hazards when their exposure to people, property or the environment poses a chance for loss. Estimate of the probability of a hazard related incident or exposure occurring and the severity of harm or damage that could result. Hazard Risk Analysis Situations or conditions having the potential for harm that can create risk. Risk = Severity x Likelihood Hierarchy of Controls Substitution Engineering Controls Warnings Administrative Controls PPE Deming's PDCA cycle Leading Indicators Elimination Plan, Do, Check, Act for continuous improvement Measuring behavior that can be identified BEFORE an accident occurs Ex - Employee surveys, near misses, hazard assessments, toolbox talks, inspections, audits 21 Lagging Indicators Measuring safety performance in terms of past failures or losses Ex - injury totals, injury rates, fatalities, workers comp. costs Authorized Person (LOTO) An employee that requires them to lockout machines or equipment and perform service or maintenance operations. Affected Person (LOTO) utilized Employees who work in the area where energy control procedures are OSHA 1910.147 Control of Hazardous Energy Basic Requirements: 1. Develop, document, implement and enforce energy control procedures 2. Use lockout devices when able 3. Ensure that lockout devices identify the individual users 4. Establish policy that only isolator can remove their lockout device 5. Inspect procedures at least annually 6. Provide training Hazard Communication Chemical Labeling Requirement labeling requirements: 1. Name of the chemical 2. Signal word 3. Pictorgram 4. H statements 5. P Statements 6. Vendor contact info Direct Costs Costs directly related to an incident All containers must be labeled. Six 22 Examples are ambulance service, medical bills, new equipment from incident, insurance deductibles, drug testing Indirect Costs Hidden costs that are usually 4.5 times more than direct costs Examples are retraining, temporary labor or overtime costs, hire and train a replacement, company reputation, OSHA penalties. Theory X and Theory Y A motivation theory that suggests that management attitudes toward workers fall into two opposing categories based on management assumptions about worker capabilities and values. Theory X assume that employees are generally lazy and only motivated by economic incentives and controlled by constant observation. Theory Y assumes that employees are self-motivated and need to be challenged and channeled and not controlled. Risk Transfer Assigns the liability to another party rather than accepting the risk. Insurance, outsourcing and derivatives are the most common forms Insurance Risk Avoidance Designed to permit an organization to transfer financial risk to an insurance company A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA) Top-down analysis is deductive reasoning meaning it works backwards starting with the undesired event. Excavation/Trench Any man-made cut, cavity, trench, or depression in an earth surface, formed by removing earth. A trench is a narrow underground excavation that is deeper than it is wide and no wider than 15 feet. Trenches 5 feet or deeper require a protective system. Trenches 20 feet or deeper require the protective system to be designed by a registered PE. 23 Protective Systems for Trenches from the excavation 1. Sloping - Cutting back the trench wall at an angle inclined away 2. Shoring - Installing aluminum hydraulic or other types of supports to prevent soil movement and cave ins 3. Shielding - Protects workers by using trench boxes or other types of supports to prevent cave-ins Egress from Trench A ladder or ramp is required in trench excavations that are 4 feet or more in depth and require no more than 25 feet of lateral travel for employees (50 feet total between ladders). Soil Types Type A soil is high cohesive and stable Type B has medium compressive strength and less cohesive Type C is granular and the least cohesive Soil Type Tests holds, type A. Pencil test - form a pencil shape with a clump of soil and hold it from one end. If it Thumb penetration test - press thumb into soil and see how hard it is to press in Pocket penetrometer test - similar to tire gauges Fall Arrest System ABCs B - body harness C - Connecting Devices Fall Protection Heights 5 feet in shipyards 6 feet in construction 8 feet in longshoring A - anchorage 4 feet in general industry Forktruck Training Requirements 2. Practical hands on training 1. Formal instruction such as a lecture 24 3. Skill check Fork Truck Units vapors G - Gas D - Diesel Class/Div Table produced vapors EX - Electrically powered that may be used in atmospheres containing flammable Class 1 - Flammable gases, flammable liquid produced vapors, combustible liquid Class 2 - Combustible dusts Class 3 - Ignitable fibers Div 1 - Ignitable concentrations can exist under normal operating conditions Div 2 - Ignitable concentrations are not likely to exist under normal operating conditions Scaffolding Employers must protect employees on a scaffold more than 10 feet above a lower level from falling to that level Which is a specific requirement of a hot work permit program? A. Permit must be issued for only cutting operations B. Permit must be issued for all hot work operations C. Permit must be issued for only brazing operations D. Permit must be issued for only welding operations operations Which is a term used to describe a dust explosion? A. Depression B. Confinement B. Permit must be issued for all hot work 25 C. Dispersion D. Ignition C. Dispersion Which are the four elements necessary to start a fire? A. Heat, dust, oxygen, chemical chain reaction B. Heat, fuel, oxygen, chemical chain reaction C. Heat, fuel, confinement, chemical chain reaction D. Heat, fuel, dust, chemical chain reaction B. Heat, fuel, oxygen, chemical chain reaction Which is a MINIMUM requirement for service of a portable fire extinguisher by an employer? A. Every 12 months B. Every 18 months C. Every 24 months D. Every month A. Every 12 months Which category of sprinkler system is installed in areas where there is potential of freezing? A. Deluge systems B. Dry pipe systems C. Wet pipe systems D. Pre-action systems B. Dry pipe systems Which happens when a positively charged rod is brought near a neutral plastic ball? A. Protons on the ball are repelled by the rod and move to the far side of the ball. B. Electrons in the ball are repelled by the rod and move to the far side of the ball. 26 C. Protons on the ball are attracted to the rod and move to the near side of the ball. D. Electrons in the ball are attracted to the rod and move to the near side of the ball. in the ball are attracted to the rod and move to the near side of the ball. Which is a characteristic of Class IC flammable liquids? A. Flash point is below 73°F; boiling point is below 100°F. B. Flash point is below 73°F; boiling point is at or above 100°F. C. Flash point is at or above 200°F. D. Flash point is at or above 73°F, but below 100°F. D. Electrons D. Flash point is at or above 73°F, but below 100°F. Which is a requirement when flammable or combustible liquids are stored in inside rooms? A. Containers over 30 gallons (113.56 liters) stacked one upon the other B. Containers having a minimum size of 600 ft² (182.88 m²) C. Complete change of air within the room at least six times per hour D. One clear aisle at least 20 ft (6.09 m) wide six times per hour Consider the following list: · light scattering principle · cloud chamber principle C. Complete change of air within the room at least · light obscuration principle. Which detectors operate on one of these three principles? A. Rate-of-rise heat detectors B. Photoelectric detectors C. Heat detectors D. Ionization detectors B. Photoelectric detectors 27 Which is one of the requirements of storage cabinets used to store quantities of flammable and combustible liquids in containers, drums, and barrels? A. Limiting the internal temperature to not more than 425°F B. Withstanding a fifteen-minute fire test C. Venting to the outside always D. Withstanding a ten-minute fire test D. Withstanding a ten-minute fire test Which method involves connecting two or more conductive objects with a conductor? A. Grounding B. Bonding C. Scaffolding D. Humidification B. Bonding Which method can an organization use to prevent a single worker's exposure from exceeding the permissible exposure limit? A. Use of additional personal protective equipment B. Work hardening C. Implementing training D. Job rotation D. Job rotation Which is a condition that results from prolonged exposure to cold weather for 12 hours or longer, at temperatures ranging from 50°F to 70°F, or for shorter periods at or near 32°F? A. Chilblains B. Trench foot C. Frostbite D. Hypothermia B. Trench foot 28 Which part of an organization is typically responsible for functions related to design, construction, standards, and repair? A. Research and design B. Engineering C. Logistics D. Facilities D. Facilities The following data factors apply to a task: Loading Weight = 100 lb Recommended Weight Limit = 55 kg Lifting Index = LW/RWL Assume 2.20 kg is equal 1 lb What is the lifting index for the task? A. 1.82 B. 1.00 C. 0.25 D. 4.00 D. 4.00 Which tools are considered high risk for vibration? A. Tools that produce high-frequency/high-amplitude vibration B. Tools that produce high-frequency/low-amplitude vibration C. Tools that produce low-frequency/low-amplitude vibration D. Tools that produce low-frequency/high-amplitude vibration frequency/high-amplitude vibration D. Tools that produce low 29 Which BEST describes lifting frequency? A. Average number of lifts in a 20-minute period B. Average number of lifts in a 5-minute period C. Average number of lifts in a 25-minute period D. Average number of lifts in a 15-minute period D. Average number of lifts in a 15-minute period Fatigue is usually accompanied by a loss of efficiency. Which types of fatigue are more likely to be experienced by employees in a construction work setting? A. Mental and social B. Social and static C. Physical and static D. Mental and physical D. Mental and physical Which type of injury is the single LARGEST occupational health hazard? A. Light-exposure injuries B. Cold-related injuries C. Noise-related injuries D. Repetitive-motion injuries D. Repetitive-motion injuries Which is a best practice to guard against material-handling injuries? A. Always keep legs straight and lift with the back. B. Always bend at the waist and at the knee. C. Always bend at the knees and not at the waist. D. Always bend at the waist and not at the knee. C. Always bend at the knees and not at the waist. 30 Which is a tool that enables a team to identify, explore, and graphically display the possible causes of an incident or hazardous conditions? A. A fishbone diagram B. A matrix diagram C. An affinity diagram D. An interrelationship diagram A. A fishbone diagram Which term describes the international system of identifying chemical and physical hazards of products using standardized symbols, signal words, and hazard statements on safety data sheets and container labels? A. Universal Communication and Alert System B. Material Characterization System C. Toxic Substances Identification System D. Globally Harmonized System D. Globally Harmonized System What is the resistance if the current (I) is 0.040 amps and the voltage (V) is 40 volts? A. 0.001 ohms B. 1.6 ohms C. 1000 ohms D. 100 ohms C. 1000 ohms On-the-job injuries and illness cost money, time, and effort. Which is the MOST practical way to manage these losses? A. Making sure safety is part of labor contracts B. Implementing aggressive insurance claims processing C. Implementing effective safety and loss control programs 31 D. Offering good insurance coverage C. Implementing effective safety and loss control programs In which way do forklifts differ from cars? A. Forklifts steer from the rear, while cars steer from the front. B. Forklifts steer from the rear and always weigh less than cars. C. Forklifts are more maneuverable than cars. D. Forklifts are easier to stop than cars. front. A. Forklifts steer from the rear, while cars steer from the Which are the three causal factors of an incident according to William C. Pope? A. Defect, management, training B. Regulation, error, attitude C. Error, defect, oversight D. Training, oversight, inadequate system C. Error, defect, oversight A company makes an investment of $24,000 to purchase safety equipment. The annual interest rate is 12%.By purchasing this equipment, the company predicts it will prevent $10,000 in injury-related costs. P = F(1 + i)^-n When will the investment pay for itself? A. 4 years B. 5 years C. 3 years D. 2 years C. 3 years Which is the BEST strategy to stay alert when you are feeling drowsy while driving? 32 A. Pinch yourself. B. Slow down and open your windows to let fresh air into the vehicle. C. Turn on the radio and sing along. D. Pull off to the side of the road and stretch for several minutes outside of your vehicle. off to the side of the road and stretch for several minutes outside of your vehicle. Which BEST describes the characteristic of Type C soil? A. Cohesive soil with a medium compressive strength B. Cohesive soil with a low compressive strength C. Cohesive soil with a moderate compressive strength D. Cohesive soil with a high compressive strength D. Pull B. Cohesive soil with a low compressive strength Which should be firmly secured to the machine when dealing with machine operation safety? A. Guard B. Awareness barrier C. Personal protective equipment D. Operating instructions A. Guard Which action is required if serious hazards are not being identified and accidents keep occurring in a facility? A. Implement new training programs. B. Expedite workers' compensation claims. C. Train employees to look for different hazards. D. Train inspectors to look for different hazards. D. Train inspectors to look for different hazards. 33 The management of a company is pooling security ideas and viewpoints of architects, safety professionals, local police, and fire officials in a coordinated effort to provide a planned defense for their facility before the actual construction begins. Which term describes the process above? A. Safe construction through environmental design B. Planned protection through environmental engineering C. Crime prevention through environmental design D. Planned construction through environmental engineering environmental design C. Crime prevention through Risk transfer is a risk management and control strategy that involves the contractual shifting of a pure risk from one party to another. Which is an example of risk transfer strategy? A. Purchasing an insurance policy B. Identifying and implementing loss-control techniques C. Creating a risk assessment matrix D. Purchasing new equipment for a facility A. Purchasing an insurance policy Which are the three MAJOR components of personal fall protection equipment? A. Anchorage, body harness, and connecting device B. Body harness, hard hat, and steel-toed boots C. Body Harness, connecting device, and sturdy ladder D. Hard hat, safety glasses, and safety training A. Anchorage, body harness, and connecting device Which leadership style will help employees strive for higher standards of performance and have more confidence in their ability to meet challenging needs? A. Performance-oriented B. Participative 34 C. Achievement-oriented D. Directed C. Achievement-oriented Which is the MOST effective method(s) of reducing contamination to workers? A. Personal protective equipment B. Administrative controls C. Engineering controls D. Training program C. Engineering controls Which is a system of tools, processes, and procedures that, when properly implemented and followed, will greatly reduce the potential for accidental release of highly hazardous chemicals? A. Globally harmonized system B. Hazard communication standard C. Safety data sheet documentation D. Process safety management D. Process safety management All employers who allow employees to perform work under activities requiring lockout/tagout (LOTO) are required to establish a written LOTO procedure. Which is a key element of training of a LOTO program? A. Train employees on the importance of not tampering with LOTO devices. B. Train employees on electrical troubleshooting when LOTO devices are needed. C. Train employees on the use of Ohms law before they perform LOTO. D. Train employees on basic wiring techniques of equipment that require LOTO. employees on the importance of not tampering with LOTO devices. Which strategy works BEST to reduce risks to the employee? A. Train 35 A. Risk assessment B. Training C. Documentation D. Elimination D. Elimination What is the pH of a solution that contains 10^-2 ions per liter? A. 2 B. 12 C. 6 D. 4 A. 2 Which represents the formula used to calculate free fall distance (FF) when the anchor point is above the attachment point? A. FF = Lanyard B. FF = Lanyard - Distance between attachment and anchor point C. FF = Lanyard x Distance between attachment and anchor point D. FF = Lanyard + Distance between attachment and anchor point between attachment and anchor point B. FF = Lanyard - Distance Which are the three basic methods used to conduct health and safety program audits? A. Facility maintenance, training, and near-misses analysis B. Management commitment, facility maintenance, and training C. Hazard analysis, management commitment, and training D. Document review, employee interviews, and site conditions interviews, and site conditions D. Document review, employee 36 A consulting safety professional has been tasked with calculating the total pounds of petroleum diesel that is stored to capacity in a 100,000-gallon cylindrical tank. The safety data sheet shows the density of the petroleum diesel as 6.943 pounds per gallon. Which is the mass, in pounds, of petroleum diesel in the tank? A. 700,943 B. 694,300 C. 700,694 D. 694,000 B. 694,300 A wire rope pulls a cart so that it exerts a constant force of 100 N on the cart. As a result of the force applied on the cart, the cart moves in a straight line with an acceleration of 25 m/s2. Force = Mass × Acceleration What is the mass of the cart? A. 0.25 kg (0.55 lbs) B. 0.25 g (0.00055 lbs) C. 4.00 kg (8.82 lbs) D. 4.00 g (0.0088 lbs) C. 4.00 kg (8.82 lbs) The question mark in the reaction equation below represents a missing component. 14C6 —> 14N7 + ? Which BEST describes the missing component? A. An electron B. An alpha particle C. A neutron D. A photon A. An electron A 20,000 lb hoist is suspended at the midpoint of a 12-ft beam that is supported at each end. 37 M= Pl/4 P = Concentrated load applied at center of beam l = Length of beam Which is the maximum bending moment in this beam? A. 6,666 ft-lb B. 60,000 ft-lb C. 66,666 ft-lb D. 6,000 ft-lb B. 60,000 ft-lb For a certain model of automobile, the probability of the windshield wipers failing after 20,000 miles is 0.5. The probability of the brake pads needing replacement after 20,000 miles is 0.3. What is the probability that the windshield wipers will fail when the brake pads need replacement? A. 1.67 B. 1.00 C. 0.15 D. 0.60 C. 0.15 A research hospital has six recordable injury cases and one days-away or restricted case for a total of seven cases. TCIR = Number of injuries or illness cases × 200,000 ÷ Total number of hours worked Assuming a total of 278,942 hours worked for the year, what is the total case incident rate (TCIR) for this hospital? A. 5.76 B. 5.72 C. 5.39 D. 5.02 D. 5.02 38 dB0 = the original sound level measurementdB1 = the calculated sound level measurement at another distanced0 = the original distance where noise measurement was takend1 = the second distance that you would like to calculate the sound level reading. If the noise from a machine is 80 dB at 10 meters, what would it be at 20 meters? A. 74 dB B. 40 dB C. 79 dB D. 70 dB A. 74 dB An investment of $20,000 is expected to earn an annual interest rate of 2.5%. F = P(1+ i)^n, where F = Future value P = Present value i = Interest rate per cycle n = Number of interest cycles Which is the future value of this investment after 3.5 years? A. $23,610.37 B. $25,000.69 C. $20,902.69 D. $21,805.37 Flammable liquid D. $21,805.37 A liquid that has a flash point of 60.5oC (141 °F) or lower. (DOT)Any liquid that has a flash point below 100 °F and a vapor pressure at or below 40 psia. (NFPA) Combustible Liquid Liquids that have a flash point greater than 60.5 °C (141 °F) and below 93 °C (200 °F). U.S. regulations permit a flammable liquid with a flash point between 38 °C (100 °F) and 60.5 °C (141 °F) to be reclassified as a combustible liquid. (DOT)Any liquid that has a flash point above 100 °F but below 200°F. (NFPA) 39 Ignition Temperature The temperature that a fuel must reach before combustion can begin Autoignition Temperature Minimum temperature to which a fuel (other than liquid) in the air must be heated in order to start self-sustained combustion; no external ignition source is required. Detonation/Explosion A sudden, rapid release of energy that produces potentially damaging pressures that can travel at the speed of sound. Oxidizing Material Symbol or support combustion. A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate Combustible Dust [as applied to Hazardous (Classified) Locations] Dust from sources such as sugar, coal, wood, or flour that can explosively combust. A solid material composed of distinct particles or pieces, regardless of size, shape or chemical composition, which can present a fire or deflagration hazard when suspended in air. Phyrophoric Material means a chemical substance or mixture that will ignite spontaneously in dry or moist air at or below 130°F (54.4°C). Decay Phase The phase of fire development in which the fire has consumed either the available fuel or oxygen and is starting to die down. Flashover Stage of a fire at which all surfaces and objects within a space have been heated to their ignition temperature, and flame breaks out almost at once over the surface of all objects in the space. Growth Phase The phase of fire development in which the fire is spreading beyond the point of origin and beginning to involve other fuels in the immediate area. Class IA Flammable Liquid Boiling Point: <100° F Flashpoint: <73° F Examples: Ethyl ether, heptane, pentane, propylene oxide, vinyl chloride 40 Class IB Flammable Liquid Flashpoint: <73° F Boiling Point: > 100° F Examples: Acetone, ethanol, gasoline, isopropyl alcohol, methanol, methyl ethyl ketone, octane, toluene. Class IC flammable liquids have a flash point ______ and _______. Boiling Point: All boiling points Flashpoint: > 73° F and <100° F Examples: Isobutyl alcohol, mineral spirits, styrene monomer, turpentine, xylene Class II Flammable Liquid (combustible) Class IIIA Flammable Liquid (combustible) Class IIIB Flammable Liquid (combustible) Flashpoint at or above 100°F but below 140°F Flashpoint at or above 140°F but below 200°F Flashpoint at or above 200°F How often must fire extinguishers be visually inspected? Heat Transfer Monthly The flow of thermal energy from higher temperature to lower temperature Types: Radiation Convection Conduction Heat Transfer - Radiation Thermal energy transfer between two bodies via electromagnetic waves. It travels in wavelengths and does not require the two objects to be in contact. It can travel through a vacuum or space. Examples: The sun heats the earth this way. Heat Transfer - Convection Thermal energy transfer by movement of a heated fluid. 41 Examples: Boiling water A fire heating the air above it causing the warm air to rise Heat Transfer - Conduction each other. Examples: A pan on an electric stove coil. Fire Classifications Thermal energy transfer between two objects in direct contact with Class A - Ordinary Combustibles Class B - Flammable Liquids and Gases Class C - Electrical Equipment Class D - Combustible Metals Class K - Cooking Media Residual Risk response to risk the risk that remains after management implements internal controls or some other Acceptable Level of Risk The level of risk to workers, resulting from exposure to hazards or system deficiencies, that is tolerated by the organization Risk Tolerance The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand after risk mitigation to achieve objectives Psychosocial Stressors Factors that contribute to or cause a person to experience psychological stress that affects health, safety or workplace performance. Examples include layoffs from employment, excessive workloads, conflicting demands, lack of job clarity, poor communications on work instructions. Audit Systematic, independent, and documented process for obtaining audit evidence and evaluating it objectively to determine the extent to which the audit criteria are fulfilled. 42 ISO 19011:2018 Guidelines for auditing management systems. 7 principles of ISO auditing include: Integrity - perform the work ethically and fairly Fair Presentation - report truthfully Due Professional Care - Diligence and judgement in auditing Confidentiality - Security of info Independence - Objectivity Evidence-based Approach - Rational, reliable, reproducible results Risk-based Approach - Consider risks and opportunities ISO 19011 audit activities include: (6) Conducting document review Preparing for on-site activities Conducting on-site activities Initiate the audit Preparing, approving and distributing the audit report Completing the audit Dan Peterson's 10 Basic Principles of Safety symptoms of management system problems An unsafe act, condition, and accident are all Scott Geller - Effective Reward and Recognition Program achievable Everyone who meets criteria should be rewarded More people get small reward than one big winner Rewards are made visible to everyone The safe behaviors should be specific and Contests should not reward one group at the expense of another Groups shouldn't be penalized for failure by individual Progress toward reward should be tracked and communicated 43 Behaviors are best modified b soon, certain and positive Behavior-Based Safety Principles recognition Critical Behavior Checklist Purpose is to identify key behaviors that are likely to lead to injuries or other accidents that are occurring or may occur. Development should include: Involvement of front line employees to gain trust and buy in Identification of current incident Prioritization based upon which behaviors will affect the highest frequency of events Selection of key behaviors to observe Behavior Based Safety ABCs the behavior The antecedent triggers the behavior and consequences motivates A - Antecedent (trigger) = tool box talk, safety policy, metrics, microlearning sessions B - Behavior = Wear PPE, report near misses, participate in safety meetings C - Consequences = Feedback from supervisor, formal recognition, disciplinary action, promotion Risk Assessment in a risk matrix. ISO 45001:2018 Process that considers potential severity and frequency of a hazard. Usually draw Elements: Leadership and worker participation Planning Support Operation Performance Evaluation Improvement 44 Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) a systematic process for identifying potential design and process failures before they occur, with the intent to eliminate them or minimize the risk associated with them Hygiene Factors factors that eliminate job dissatisfaction but don't motivate (supervision, interpersonal relationships, working conditions, salary) Motivation Factors job factors that increase motivation, although their absence does not necessarily result in dissatisfaction (achievement, advancement, recognition, responsibility) U-Bolts Properly mounted and secured. Not cracked, bent, or broken. None missing. Never saddle a dead horse (saddle is always positioned on the live end of the rope so that portion is not damaged) Ergonomic Hierarchy of Controls Engineering - lifts, purchasing tools, reducing weights Administrative - job rotating, ergonomics training, fit for job program PPE - clothing, gloves, padding, mouse pad Ergonomic Tool Selection is applied horizontally Tools with bent handles promote a more neutral posture when the force Tools with straight handles promote a more neutral position when the force is applied vertically Musculoskeletal Disorders MSDs are injuries or disorders that affect the human body's movement or musculoskeletal system. Single largest category of workplace injuries and are responsible for 30% of all workers comp. costs Cumulative Trauma Disorder (CTD) Painful conditions that result from ongoing stresses to muscles, tendons, nerves, and joints. Repetitive tasks Epicondylitis inflammation of the tissues surrounding the elbow 45 Carpal Tunnel Syndrome compression of the median nerve as it passes between the ligament and the bones and tendons of the wrist. Symptoms are numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and arm. Risk Factors for MSDs vibrations force, repeating action, awkward postures, heavy lifting, cold temperatures, Symptom Survey (Ergonomics) A proactive tool used to identify symptoms such as aches, pain, numbness, and tingling. Helps to focus on jobs or tasks that may lead to MSDs and to act before the injury occurs. Anthropometry capacities. Ergonomics The science that defines physical measures of a person's size, form, and functional The study of the relationship between people and their working environment especially the tools and equipment they use Kinesiology The study of human and non-human movement. Addresses physiological, biomechanical, and psychological dynamic principles and mechanisms of movement Biology The science that deals with living organisms and vital life processes De Quervain's Disease Inflammation of the tendon sheath of the thumb. Associated with repetitive or forceful gripping or twisting of tools Raynaud's disease White finger disease. Associated with repeated or prolonged exposure to vibration especially in cold environments. Extension person Flexion A movement that increases the angle between two body parts. Looking at the side of a A movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. Looking at the side 46 Abduction ADDuction Fatigue Movement away from the midline of the body. looking at someone straight on Movement toward the midline of the body. Looking straight on to a person Common causes: Working overnight or rotating shifts Length and level of work Sleep deprivation Environmental factors Personal factors Lifting Index Actual weight/RWL Lifting index >1, redesign Acclimatization the process or result of becoming accustomed to a new climate or to new conditions. Gaining tolerance to climates or conditions Heat Tempering Heat Exhaustion A process used to increase the toughness of iron-based alloy. A heat illness associated with the body overheating. It is one of 3 heat-related illness with heat cramps being the mildest and heatstroke being the most severe. Hot Work any work that involves burning, welding, using fire- or spark-producing tools, or that produces a source of ignition. Rapid Upper Limb Assessment (RULA) Used to assess posture, force and movement associated with tasks where the worker is seated or standing without moving about 47 Used to assess static, rapidly changing and unstable Rapid Entire Body Assessment (REBA) postures. Rogers Muscle Fatigue Analysis Studies physiological muscle fatigue at different effort levels and holding times. The study observes muscular effort in relation to recovery time Strain Index A method of evaluating jobs to determine if they exposure workers to increased risk of developing MSDs of the upper extremity Work Hardening/Work Conditioning Methods used by medical and rehabilitative professionals to assist employees in returning tot heir normal work patterns/tasks. May involve off-site rehab services and/or introducing the employee to work tasks on a gradual basis. Job Rotation frequencies/forces Having employees rotate tasks that use different body segments or different Restricted Duty/Light Duty Medical term used to indicate that an employee may return to work under specific guidelines or restrictions. Fit for Duty Physiologically and mentally prepared and capable of performing assigned duties at the highest degree of safety. Trench Foot "Immersion foot". An injury of soft tissues, nerves and vessels of extremities resulting from prolonged exposure to wet and cold conditions. Can occur at temperatures as high as 60F if the body is constantly wet. Hypothermia Occurs when the body begins to lose heat faster than it can be produced. It is the most common cold injury Frostbite damage to the skin and tissues caused by extreme cold 48 Chilblains inflammation of the hands and feet caused by exposure to cold and moisture. Caused by temperatures from just above freezing to 60F. Least common cold injury. tenosynovitis Trigger Finger inflammation of a tendon sheath where muscles connect to bones. Inflammation and thickening of the tendons of the finger makes it difficult to flex or extend the finger, may become stuck and then snap into position Thoracic Outlet Syndrome Compression syndrome of upper limb neurovascular bundle at the level of scalene muscles and first rib. 70% with arterial injury have a cervical rib. Computer Monitor Placement Illuminance Top 1/3 of the screen, an arm length's away, avoid glare the amount of light falling on a surface and measured in lumens per square meter Lux Lumens Candela lumen Measure of illuminance, the total amount of light that falls on a surface. Lux = lumens/m^2 Measures the amount of light that is emitted by a single light source and in all directions International system of units measure of luminous intensity. One candela is equal to one Workplace Wellness Programs Proactive activities companies take to prevent injuries and illnesses early to improve recovery. i.e fitness facility, smoking cessation, dietary assistance, EAP, IHS Backbelt ARE NOT PPE. OSHA says not to rely on back belts, no proof or benefit Psychophysical Assessments Used to study acceptable weight limits for manual lifting, pushing and pulling tests. Data is collected and subdivided in age/gender. 49 Involve measuring the forces applied to body oarts under certain Biomechanical Assessments loads Physiological Assessments Measure body functions when performing certain tasks. May measure one function or several. Measures include heart rate, temperate, oxygen consumption Is 500 lux sufficient lighting? Noise Limits Yes PEL is 90dBa and action level is 85dBa Warning Signs Simple font, use as little as words as possible. In low light, white font on a black background is more visible. Use of all upper cased letters reduces legibility. Clear Width of a Ramp Slope and Rise of Ramp Minimum clear width of a ramp shall be 36 in The maximum slope of a ramp in new construction shall be 1:12 Standard Stairs 29CFR 1910.25(c) horizontal 1. Installed at angles between 30 to 50 degrees from the 2. Have maximum riser height of 9.5 inches 3. Have minimum tread depth of 9.5 inches 4. Have a minimum width of 22 inches Dust Explosion Occurs when a concentration of material becomes suspended in the air sufficient to support ignition and detonation HAZCOM Provides employees with insight into the materials with which they are working. Provides them the knowledge and understanding to manage their exposure to the materials before they are exposed. 50 Explosion An event with an outward release of energy and sudden expansion in volume which typically causes damage to surrounding material or injuring nearby living things. Deflagration - used to describe an explosion that is subsonic whereas detonation is used when the explosion is supersonic. Common causes: Hot work, electrical hazards, flammable liquids, natural gas Autoignition Term to describe the phenomenon of a vapor igniting without an external ignition source. It can occur when a heated liquid emits vapors at a temperature above its ignition temp. Propagation Conflagration Fire Alarm Types Used to indicate spreading or increasing something A fire that spreads over a large space or many objects/areas Conventional - Traditional alarms that allow the system to be separated into zones which are hard wired to the control panel. Addressable - Intelligent systems because they allow each sensor to have its own unique address, they monitor the devices and can identify the specific device which is in alarm mode. Provide automatic or manual modes. Hybrid - Blend between the other two Smoke Detectors Ionization detection - responsive to flaming fires Photoelectric detection - more responsive to fires that are smoldering. Three principles - light obscuration, light scattering, cloud chamber Combination - combo of both Heat detection Rate of rise - heat detector. Alarms when the room temp rises rapidly Spray booth solvent vapor percentage Total air volume exhausted through a spray booth shall be such as to dilute solvent vapor to at least 25% of the LEL of the solvent being sprayed 51 Flammable Liquid Quantity No more than 25 gallons of flammable liquids shall be stored in a room outside of an acceptable cabinet Sprinkler Systems sensitive sprinkler heads Wet Pipe - Most common. Pipes are filled with water and are triggered by heat Dry Pipe - Used in freezing cold environments where temps can cause water in line to freeze. Pipes are f illed with air or nitrogen Pre-Action - Uses a valve to control the amount of water flow through the system. Useful where excessive water flow might cause unacceptable damage to the facility such as a museum Emergency Lighting Functional test for 30 seconds every 30 days and for 90 minutes each year Oxygen/Flammable Cylinders and have a 30 minute rating The firewall between fuel and oxygen cylinders must be 5 feet tall Shall be separate from each other by a minimum distance of 20 ft Flash Point Flashover the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel produces enough vapor to burn Stage of a fire at which all surfaces and objects within a space have been heated to their ignition temperature, and flame breaks out almost at once over the surface of all objects in the space. Flash Fire A fire that spreads by means of a flame front rapidly through a diffuse fuel, such as dust, gas, or the vapors of an ignitible liquid, without the production of damaging pressure. Fire Extinguisher Types A- wood and paper fires B- grease and oil fires C- electric fires Metal fires require dry chem K - animal fats ABC required in commercial kitchens 52 Fume Mist Smoke Particles generated from melted material Liquid particles in an aerosol form Particles generated from a burning substance Four components of fire Dust Explosion Fuel, Heat, Oxygen, and Uninhibited Chemical Chain Reaction Oxygen, heat, fuel, dispersion and confinement. CONFINEMENT IS BIG TERM NFPA water sprinkler inspections Maximum Allowable Quantity At least annually Maximum amount of a hazardous material to be stored or used within a control area inside a building or an outdoor control area; maximum allowable quantity per control area is based on the material state (solid, liquid, or gas) and the material storage or use conditions 29 CFR 1910.106 29 CFR 1910.101 29 CFR 1910.119 29 CFR 1910.120 Fire Watch Flammable liquids Compressed gases Process Safety Management Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response A temporary measure intended to ensure continuous and systematic surveillance of a building or portion thereof by one or more qualified individuals for the purposes of identifying and controlling fire hazards, detecting early signs of fire, raising an alarm of fire and notifying the department. Required for 30 minutes 53 Five Phases of Anger in Assault Cycle Escalation Crisis Recovery Post Crisis/Depression Work-Life Program Trigge