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Exam (elaborations)

Advanced Medical Life Support (AMLS) – Post-Test Questions and Correct Answers (2025/2026)

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This document provides the complete set of AMLS post-test questions with 100% correct answers for the 2023/2024 edition. It covers critical concepts in advanced medical life support including patient assessment, pathophysiology, medical emergencies, and evidence-based treatment strategies. Designed to support learners in mastering AMLS course content, this resource ensures thorough preparation and exam success.

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Advanced Medical Life Support (AMLS)
– Post-Test Questions and Correct
Answers (2025/2026)
Section 1: Airway and Respiratory Emergencies (15
Questions)
1. A 45-year-old patient is found supine on the floor with pinpoint pupils, shallow
respirations, and vomitus around the mouth. What is the next course of action?
a) Initiate an IV and administer naloxone
b) Supplemental oxygen and suction
c) Obtain a blood glucose level
d) Begin BVM ventilations
Answer: b) Supplemental oxygen and suction
Rationale: Pinpoint pupils and shallow respirations suggest opioid overdose, but airway
management with oxygen and suction is the priority to ensure patency.
2. Patients with a history of COPD presenting with acute shortness of breath are likely
to have what condition?
a) Pulmonary embolism
b) Angina pectoris
c) Angioedema
d) Hypertensive crisis
Answer: a) Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Acute shortness of breath in COPD patients may indicate pulmonary
embolism due to increased risk of clotting.
3. What condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis?
a) Anxiety/panic attack
b) Narcotic overdose
c) Methanol ingestion
d) Diabetic ketoacidosis
Answer: b) Narcotic overdose
Rationale: Narcotic overdose causes respiratory depression, leading to CO2 retention
and respiratory acidosis.
4. What clinical findings are most commonly associated with a pulmonary embolus?
a) Clear breath sounds with tachypnea
b) Rhonchi auscultated bilaterally
c) Crackles in the bases with bradycardia
d) Fever and tachycardia
Answer: a) Clear breath sounds with tachypnea
Rationale: Pulmonary embolus typically presents with clear breath sounds and tachypnea
due to impaired gas exchange.

, 5. A 20-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of dyspnea, non-productive
cough, chest tightness, and audible wheezing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Pneumonia
b) Asthma
c) Pulmonary edema
d) Anaphylaxis
Answer: b) Asthma
Rationale: These are textbook signs of asthma, characterized by wheezing and difficulty
exhaling.
6. What is the initial treatment for a patient with acute asthma exacerbation?
a) Administer antibiotics
b) Provide supplemental oxygen and albuterol
c) Initiate IV fluids only
d) Restrict all fluids
Answer: b) Provide supplemental oxygen and albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, relieves bronchospasm, and oxygen
supports hypoxia in asthma exacerbations.
7. A patient with COPD has pursed lip breathing and rhonchi. What is the suspected
diagnosis?
a) Asthma
b) COPD exacerbation
c) Pneumothorax
d) Heart failure
Answer: b) COPD exacerbation
Rationale: Pursed lip breathing and rhonchi are classic signs of COPD exacerbation.
8. What is a key intervention for a patient with anaphylaxis?
a) Administer antihistamines only
b) Administer epinephrine intramuscularly
c) Restrict all fluids
d) Provide supplemental oxygen only
Answer: b) Administer epinephrine intramuscularly
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and hypotension.
9. A patient presents with stridor and drooling. What is the suspected diagnosis?
a) Asthma
b) Epiglottitis
c) Bronchitis
d) Pneumonia
Answer: b) Epiglottitis
Rationale: Stridor and drooling suggest epiglottitis, a medical emergency requiring
airway management.
10. What is a key sign of pneumothorax?
a) Symmetrical chest rise
b) Decreased breath sounds on one side
c) Bilateral crackles
d) Increased respiratory rate only

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