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2025 HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam V2 – Medication Administration, Safety, and Calculations Questions & Answers with Rationales | 100% Verified | Graded A+

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Master the 2025 HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam V2 with this comprehensive study guide! Designed for nursing students, this resource features over 100 Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)-style questions focused on medication administration, safety, and dosage calculations, complete with answers and detailed expert rationales. Covering critical pharmacology topics such as safe medication practices, drug calculations, therapeutic effects, adverse reactions, patient education, and high-risk medications across systems like cardiovascular, neurological, and endocrine, this test bank ensures you excel in the 2025 exam. Updated with 100% verified content aligned with the 2025 HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam blueprint, it prepares you for both the exam and real-world clinical practice. Perfect for RN and PN students aiming for an A+ grade and NCLEX success, this Q&A pack is your ultimate tool for acing the HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam V2. Download now and study smarter

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2025 HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam
V2 – Medication Administration,
Safety, and Calculations Questions &
Answers with Rationales | 100%
Verified | Graded A+

This document provides 86 multiple-choice questions with verified answers and detailed
rationales for the 2025 HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam V2. Questions focus on medication
administration, safety, and dosage calculations, aligned with the HESI Pharmacology and NGN
formats. Answers are in dark red.




HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam V2 Questions (1–86)
Medication Administration (30 Questions)

1. A nurse is caring for a client taking cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. When should the
nurse administer this medication?
o A) With the first bite of food
o B) Immediately after meals
o C) 30 minutes after meals
o D) 30 minutes before meals
o Answer: D. 30 minutes before meals
o Rationale: Cimetidine, an H2-receptor blocker, is most effective when taken 30
minutes before meals to reduce gastric acid production during digestion.
2. A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets reports nausea every evening with the
9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take?
o A) Change the time of the dose
o B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose
o C) Administer the dose with a snack
o D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose
o Answer: C. Administer the dose with a snack
o Rationale: Administering albuterol with food minimizes gastrointestinal
discomfort, such as nausea, without disrupting the dosing schedule.

,3. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro (Humalog) to a client. Which
intervention is most important?
o A) Check blood glucose levels every 6 hours
o B) Provide meals at the same time as insulin administration
o C) Assess for hyperglycemia between meals
o D) Administer insulin at bedtime
o Answer: B. Provide meals at the same time as insulin administration
o Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with a peak effect within 1–2 hours;
meals must be available at administration to prevent hypoglycemia.
4. A client is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which information should the nurse
include in discharge teaching? (Select all that apply)
o A) Report signs of thrombocytopenia
o B) Take with aspirin if needed
o C) Monitor for iron deficiency anemia
o D) Report restlessness or confusion
o E) Avoid alcohol consumption
o Answer: D. Report restlessness or confusion, E. Avoid alcohol consumption
o Rationale: Ranitidine can cause central nervous system effects like restlessness or
confusion, especially in older adults. Alcohol can exacerbate gastrointestinal
irritation. Thrombocytopenia and anemia are not common side effects, and aspirin
may increase bleeding risk.
5. A nurse is administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which
laboratory finding indicates a risk for toxicity?
o A) Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
o B) Serum sodium 140 mEq/L
o C) Serum calcium 9.5 mg/dL
o D) Serum magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
o Answer: A. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
o Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium <3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin
toxicity by enhancing drug binding to cardiac cells.
6. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which
medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
o A) Calcium chloride
o B) Calcium gluconate
o C) Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
o D) Vitamin D
o Answer: C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
o Rationale: Calcitonin lowers serum calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption,
treating hypercalcemia. Calcium chloride, gluconate, and vitamin D increase
calcium levels.
7. A nurse is teaching a client about sucralfate (Carafate). What is the purpose of this
medication?
o A) Reduce bacteria in the stomach
o B) Neutralize gastric acid
o C) Protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
o D) Relieve constipation

, o Answer: C. Protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
o Rationale: Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over the gastric mucosa,
promoting ulcer healing.
8. A client is prescribed minocycline (Minocin) for acne. Which teaching points should
the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
o A) Report vaginal itching or discharge
o B) Take at 0800, 1500, and 2200 hours
o C) Protect skin from ultraviolet light
o D) Take with an antacid to prevent nausea
o E) Use a nonhormonal method of contraception
o Answer: A. Report vaginal itching or discharge, C. Protect skin from
ultraviolet light, E. Use a nonhormonal method of contraception
o Rationale: Minocycline can cause photosensitivity, vaginal candidiasis, and
decreased oral contraceptive efficacy. Antacids reduce absorption and are not
recommended.
9. A nurse is administering a chemotherapy drug, cisplatin (Platinol), with
ondansetron (Zofran). What is the rationale for ondansetron?
o A) Promote diuresis
o B) Reduce nausea and vomiting
o C) Prevent hyperuricemia
o D) Reduce allergic reactions
o Answer: B. Reduce nausea and vomiting
o Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent chemotherapy-induced
nausea and vomiting.
10. A client is receiving nitroglycerin sublingually for an acute angina attack. Which
finding indicates the desired effect?
o A) Chest pain is relieved
o B) Pulse decreases from 120 to 90 bpm
o C) Systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90 mmHg
o D) SaO2 increases from 92% to 96%
o Answer: A. Chest pain is relieved
o Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen demand, relieving angina
pain.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously. Which technique
ensures proper administration?
o A) Inject at a 90-degree angle
o B) Aspirate before injection
o C) Massage the site after injection
o D) Use a 25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle
o Answer: D. Use a 25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle
o Rationale: Subcutaneous heparin requires a small-gauge, short needle (25-gauge,
5/8-inch) and a 45-degree angle. Aspiration and massage increase bleeding risk.
12. A client is prescribed niacin (Niaspan) for hyperlipidemia. Which client teaching is
most important?
o A) Expect facial flushing as a side effect
o B) Take with grapefruit juice

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