NR-341 Complex Adult Health year three 2024-2025
100 Practice Questions with Answers 100%
guaranteed pass already graded A
1. Which of the following is the primary goal in managing acute
respiratory failure?
A) Decreasing cardiac output
B) Maintaining airway patency and oxygenation
C) Increasing metabolic rate
D) Reducing diuresis
Answer: B ✓
2. What is the main characteristic of cardiogenic shock?
A) Inadequate tissue perfusion due to cardiac pump
failure
B) Peripheral vasodilation causing hypovolemia
C) Massive infection leading to vasodilation
D) Severe blood loss
Answer: A ✓
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated
with acute renal failure?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
Answer: A ✓
,4. In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Administering IV fluids rapidly
B) Monitoring for signs of stroke and embolism
C) Applying cold compresses to the chest
D) Restricting activity completely
Answer: B ✓
5. Which of the following is the earliest indicator of sepsis in a
critically ill adult?
A) Hypotension and tachycardia
B) Bradycardia and hypothermia
C) Hyperactive bowel sounds
D) Elevated urine output
Answer: A ✓
6. The primary function of hemodynamic monitoring is:
A) To measure blood glucose levels
B) To assess cardiovascular function and guide therapy
C) To assess renal function
D) To monitor neurological status
Answer: B ✓
7. Which medication class is most commonly used to treat
ventricular dysrhythmias?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Beta blockers
C) Antiarrhythmics
, D) Diuretics
Answer: C ✓
8. What is a common cause of acute gastrointestinal bleeding
in the critically ill adult?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Appendicitis
C) Diverticulitis
D) Crohn's disease
Answer: A ✓
9. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with
burn injury?
A) Neurological status
B) Airway patency and breathing
C) Pain level only
D) Nutritional status
Answer: B ✓
10. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor in a
patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A) Serum potassium
B) White blood cell count
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A ✓
11. A patient presents with acute stroke symptoms. What is
the recommended timing for administration of tissue
plasminogen activator (tPA)?
A) Within 3 to 4.5 hours of symptom onset
100 Practice Questions with Answers 100%
guaranteed pass already graded A
1. Which of the following is the primary goal in managing acute
respiratory failure?
A) Decreasing cardiac output
B) Maintaining airway patency and oxygenation
C) Increasing metabolic rate
D) Reducing diuresis
Answer: B ✓
2. What is the main characteristic of cardiogenic shock?
A) Inadequate tissue perfusion due to cardiac pump
failure
B) Peripheral vasodilation causing hypovolemia
C) Massive infection leading to vasodilation
D) Severe blood loss
Answer: A ✓
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated
with acute renal failure?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
Answer: A ✓
,4. In a patient with atrial fibrillation, which is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Administering IV fluids rapidly
B) Monitoring for signs of stroke and embolism
C) Applying cold compresses to the chest
D) Restricting activity completely
Answer: B ✓
5. Which of the following is the earliest indicator of sepsis in a
critically ill adult?
A) Hypotension and tachycardia
B) Bradycardia and hypothermia
C) Hyperactive bowel sounds
D) Elevated urine output
Answer: A ✓
6. The primary function of hemodynamic monitoring is:
A) To measure blood glucose levels
B) To assess cardiovascular function and guide therapy
C) To assess renal function
D) To monitor neurological status
Answer: B ✓
7. Which medication class is most commonly used to treat
ventricular dysrhythmias?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Beta blockers
C) Antiarrhythmics
, D) Diuretics
Answer: C ✓
8. What is a common cause of acute gastrointestinal bleeding
in the critically ill adult?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Appendicitis
C) Diverticulitis
D) Crohn's disease
Answer: A ✓
9. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with
burn injury?
A) Neurological status
B) Airway patency and breathing
C) Pain level only
D) Nutritional status
Answer: B ✓
10. Which laboratory value is most critical to monitor in a
patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A) Serum potassium
B) White blood cell count
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A ✓
11. A patient presents with acute stroke symptoms. What is
the recommended timing for administration of tissue
plasminogen activator (tPA)?
A) Within 3 to 4.5 hours of symptom onset
