NUR 2356 / NUR2356: Multidimensional Care I /
MDC 1 Final Exam (Latest ) Rasmussen
Questions 1–67: NUR2356 Multidimensional Care I Final
Exam Sample
Infection Control
1. What is a primary defense against infection?
A. Inflammation
B. Fever
C. Intact skin
D. Phagocytosis
Answer: Intact skin
Rationale: Intact skin serves as the body’s primary physical barrier to pathogens.
Inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis are secondary defenses.
2. If contact precautions are in place, what link in the chain of infection is broken?
A. Infectious agent
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Susceptible host
Answer: Mode of transmission
Rationale: Contact precautions (e.g., gloves, gowns) prevent pathogen transmission via
direct or indirect contact, breaking the chain of infection.
3. A patient with a recent travel history develops a fever and cough. What type of
isolation should the nurse initiate?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard
Answer: Airborne
Rationale: Fever and cough in a traveler may suggest an airborne infection (e.g.,
tuberculosis), requiring airborne precautions with an N95 mask and negative pressure
room.
4. Which action is most effective in preventing healthcare-associated infections?
A. Limiting fluid intake
B. Hand hygiene
, C. Avoiding vaccinations
D. Wearing open-toe shoes
Answer: Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene, using soap and water or alcohol-based rubs, is the most
effective measure to prevent infection transmission in healthcare settings.
5. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for a patient with MRSA?
(Select all that apply)
A. Gloves
B. Gown
C. Mask
D. Eye protection
E. Shoe covers
Answer: Gloves, Gown
Rationale: Contact precautions for MRSA require gloves and gowns. Masks and eye
protection are used for droplet or airborne precautions.
6. A nurse is caring for a patient with C. difficile. What cleaning agent should be used
for the patient’s room?
A. Alcohol-based sanitizer
B. Bleach solution
C. Soap and water
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Answer: Bleach solution
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol; a bleach solution is required for
effective disinfection.
7. What is a key nursing action when caring for a patient with tuberculosis?
A. Use standard precautions only
B. Place in a positive pressure room
C. Wear an N95 respirator
D. Allow unrestricted visitors
Answer: Wear an N95 respirator
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including an N95 respirator and a
negative pressure room.
Wound Care
8. A wound has blood-tinged, watery drainage. How should the nurse document this?
A. Purulent
B. Serous
, C. Sanguineous
D. Serosanguineous
Answer: Serosanguineous
Rationale: Serosanguineous drainage is watery and blood-tinged, common in early
healing. Purulent is pus-filled, serous is clear, and sanguineous is bloody.
9. What are causes of pressure ulcers? (Select all that apply)
A. Prolonged pressure
B. Friction
C. Shear
D. Adequate nutrition
E. Moisture
Answer: Prolonged pressure, Friction, Shear, Moisture
Rationale: Pressure ulcers result from prolonged pressure, friction, shear, and moisture.
Adequate nutrition supports healing, not causation.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Apply a dry dressing
C. Reposition the client every 2 hours
D. Encourage a high-calorie diet
Answer: Reposition the client every 2 hours
Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours relieves pressure, preventing further tissue
damage, and is the priority for stage 3 pressure ulcers.
11. Which dressing is most appropriate for a dry, non-infected wound?
A. Hydrocolloid dressing
B. Wet-to-dry dressing
C. Transparent film dressing
D. Alginate dressing
Answer: Transparent film dressing
Rationale: Transparent film dressings protect dry, non-infected wounds and promote a
moist healing environment without adding moisture.
12. A nurse is assessing a surgical wound. Which finding indicates infection?
A. Clear drainage
B. Redness and warmth around the wound
C. Mild swelling
D. Serosanguineous drainage
MDC 1 Final Exam (Latest ) Rasmussen
Questions 1–67: NUR2356 Multidimensional Care I Final
Exam Sample
Infection Control
1. What is a primary defense against infection?
A. Inflammation
B. Fever
C. Intact skin
D. Phagocytosis
Answer: Intact skin
Rationale: Intact skin serves as the body’s primary physical barrier to pathogens.
Inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis are secondary defenses.
2. If contact precautions are in place, what link in the chain of infection is broken?
A. Infectious agent
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Susceptible host
Answer: Mode of transmission
Rationale: Contact precautions (e.g., gloves, gowns) prevent pathogen transmission via
direct or indirect contact, breaking the chain of infection.
3. A patient with a recent travel history develops a fever and cough. What type of
isolation should the nurse initiate?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard
Answer: Airborne
Rationale: Fever and cough in a traveler may suggest an airborne infection (e.g.,
tuberculosis), requiring airborne precautions with an N95 mask and negative pressure
room.
4. Which action is most effective in preventing healthcare-associated infections?
A. Limiting fluid intake
B. Hand hygiene
, C. Avoiding vaccinations
D. Wearing open-toe shoes
Answer: Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene, using soap and water or alcohol-based rubs, is the most
effective measure to prevent infection transmission in healthcare settings.
5. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for a patient with MRSA?
(Select all that apply)
A. Gloves
B. Gown
C. Mask
D. Eye protection
E. Shoe covers
Answer: Gloves, Gown
Rationale: Contact precautions for MRSA require gloves and gowns. Masks and eye
protection are used for droplet or airborne precautions.
6. A nurse is caring for a patient with C. difficile. What cleaning agent should be used
for the patient’s room?
A. Alcohol-based sanitizer
B. Bleach solution
C. Soap and water
D. Hydrogen peroxide
Answer: Bleach solution
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol; a bleach solution is required for
effective disinfection.
7. What is a key nursing action when caring for a patient with tuberculosis?
A. Use standard precautions only
B. Place in a positive pressure room
C. Wear an N95 respirator
D. Allow unrestricted visitors
Answer: Wear an N95 respirator
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including an N95 respirator and a
negative pressure room.
Wound Care
8. A wound has blood-tinged, watery drainage. How should the nurse document this?
A. Purulent
B. Serous
, C. Sanguineous
D. Serosanguineous
Answer: Serosanguineous
Rationale: Serosanguineous drainage is watery and blood-tinged, common in early
healing. Purulent is pus-filled, serous is clear, and sanguineous is bloody.
9. What are causes of pressure ulcers? (Select all that apply)
A. Prolonged pressure
B. Friction
C. Shear
D. Adequate nutrition
E. Moisture
Answer: Prolonged pressure, Friction, Shear, Moisture
Rationale: Pressure ulcers result from prolonged pressure, friction, shear, and moisture.
Adequate nutrition supports healing, not causation.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Apply a dry dressing
C. Reposition the client every 2 hours
D. Encourage a high-calorie diet
Answer: Reposition the client every 2 hours
Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours relieves pressure, preventing further tissue
damage, and is the priority for stage 3 pressure ulcers.
11. Which dressing is most appropriate for a dry, non-infected wound?
A. Hydrocolloid dressing
B. Wet-to-dry dressing
C. Transparent film dressing
D. Alginate dressing
Answer: Transparent film dressing
Rationale: Transparent film dressings protect dry, non-infected wounds and promote a
moist healing environment without adding moisture.
12. A nurse is assessing a surgical wound. Which finding indicates infection?
A. Clear drainage
B. Redness and warmth around the wound
C. Mild swelling
D. Serosanguineous drainage
