NUR 2356 / NUR2356: Multidimensional
Care I / MDC 1 Exam 2 (Latest 2025 /
2026) Rasmussen
Section 1: Infection Control (Questions 1–12)
1. What is a primary defense against infection?
A. Inflammation
B. Fever
C. Phagocytosis
D. Intact skin
Answer: Intact skin
Rationale: Intact skin is the body’s first line of defense against infection, acting as a
physical barrier to pathogens.
2. If contact precautions are in place, what link in the chain of infection is broken?
(Select all that apply)
A. Infectious agent
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Susceptible host
E. Portal of entry
Answer: Mode of transmission, Portal of entry
Rationale: Contact precautions (e.g., gloves, gowns) break the chain of infection by
preventing pathogen transmission and entry into a susceptible host.
3. A patient recently traveled and developed a fever and cough. What type of isolation
should the nurse initiate?
A. Standard precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Contact precautions
Answer: Droplet precautions
Rationale: Fever and cough suggest a respiratory infection (e.g., influenza), requiring
droplet precautions to prevent transmission via respiratory droplets.
4. What is the most effective action to reduce infection risk in a patient undergoing
chemotherapy?
, A. Encourage high-fiber diet
B. Hand hygiene
C. Limit fluid intake
D. Restrict visitors
Answer: Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective measure to reduce infection risk,
especially in immunocompromised patients.
5. What is the priority assessment for a client with AIDS and Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia (PCP)?
A. Lung sounds
B. Skin turgor
C. Radial pulses
D. Capillary refill
Answer: Lung sounds
Rationale: PCP affects the lungs, so assessing lung sounds is the priority to evaluate
respiratory status and oxygenation.
6. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for airborne precautions?
A. Gloves only
B. Surgical mask and gloves
C. N95 respirator and gown
D. Face shield only
Answer: N95 respirator and gown
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator and gown to protect against
pathogens transmitted via small airborne particles (e.g., tuberculosis).
7. What should a nurse do to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections
(CAUTIs)?
A. Leave the catheter in place indefinitely
B. Use aseptic technique during insertion
C. Irrigate the catheter daily
D. Avoid hand hygiene
Answer: Use aseptic technique during insertion
Rationale: Aseptic technique during catheter insertion is critical to prevent CAUTIs by
minimizing pathogen introduction.
8. What is a sign of a localized infection?
A. Fever and chills
B. Redness and swelling at the site
C. Generalized fatigue
D. Increased white blood cell count
Care I / MDC 1 Exam 2 (Latest 2025 /
2026) Rasmussen
Section 1: Infection Control (Questions 1–12)
1. What is a primary defense against infection?
A. Inflammation
B. Fever
C. Phagocytosis
D. Intact skin
Answer: Intact skin
Rationale: Intact skin is the body’s first line of defense against infection, acting as a
physical barrier to pathogens.
2. If contact precautions are in place, what link in the chain of infection is broken?
(Select all that apply)
A. Infectious agent
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Susceptible host
E. Portal of entry
Answer: Mode of transmission, Portal of entry
Rationale: Contact precautions (e.g., gloves, gowns) break the chain of infection by
preventing pathogen transmission and entry into a susceptible host.
3. A patient recently traveled and developed a fever and cough. What type of isolation
should the nurse initiate?
A. Standard precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Contact precautions
Answer: Droplet precautions
Rationale: Fever and cough suggest a respiratory infection (e.g., influenza), requiring
droplet precautions to prevent transmission via respiratory droplets.
4. What is the most effective action to reduce infection risk in a patient undergoing
chemotherapy?
, A. Encourage high-fiber diet
B. Hand hygiene
C. Limit fluid intake
D. Restrict visitors
Answer: Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective measure to reduce infection risk,
especially in immunocompromised patients.
5. What is the priority assessment for a client with AIDS and Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia (PCP)?
A. Lung sounds
B. Skin turgor
C. Radial pulses
D. Capillary refill
Answer: Lung sounds
Rationale: PCP affects the lungs, so assessing lung sounds is the priority to evaluate
respiratory status and oxygenation.
6. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is required for airborne precautions?
A. Gloves only
B. Surgical mask and gloves
C. N95 respirator and gown
D. Face shield only
Answer: N95 respirator and gown
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator and gown to protect against
pathogens transmitted via small airborne particles (e.g., tuberculosis).
7. What should a nurse do to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections
(CAUTIs)?
A. Leave the catheter in place indefinitely
B. Use aseptic technique during insertion
C. Irrigate the catheter daily
D. Avoid hand hygiene
Answer: Use aseptic technique during insertion
Rationale: Aseptic technique during catheter insertion is critical to prevent CAUTIs by
minimizing pathogen introduction.
8. What is a sign of a localized infection?
A. Fever and chills
B. Redness and swelling at the site
C. Generalized fatigue
D. Increased white blood cell count
