266 HESI Exam questions, 266 HESI Study 55
questions, BSN HESI 266, Hesi - 266 multiple
choice (2025-2026 UPDATE) with Questions
and Verified Rationalized Answers, 100%
Guarantee Pass
100% Verified Passing Score Guaranteed Expert Rationales Included
Question 1
Question 1 of 55
The nurse is evaluating a client's understanding about the DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
eating plan. Which behavior indicates that the client is adhering to the eating plan?
- A Uses only lactose-free dairy products.
- B Carefully cleans and peels all fresh fruit and vegetables.
- C No longer incudes grains in daily diet.
- D Enjoys fat-free yogurt as an occasional snack food.
Correct Answer
- D Enjoys fat-free yogurt as an occasional snack food.
Rationale:
The DASH eating plan emphasizes whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, as well as low-fat dairy products, and does not
require lactose-free or fat-free products exclusively. Therefore, option D, "Enjoys fat-free yogurt as an occasional snack food",
is the correct answer as it indicates that the client is adhering to the plan's guideline of choosing low-fat dairy products.
Question 2
Question 2 of 55
A client who has a history of hypothyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which
additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse? [Hematocrit (Reference Range: Male:
42% to 52% (0.42 to 0.52 volume fraction)]
- A Further decline in level of consciousness.
- B Hematocrit of 30% (0.30 volume fraction)
- C Cold and dry skin.
- D Facial puffiness and periorbital edema
Correct Answer
- A Further decline in level of consciousness.
Rationale:
A hematocrit of 30% (0.30 volume fraction) is a critical finding that warrants immediate action because it indicates severe
dehydration, which can lead to a further decline in the client's level of consciousness, potentially causing harm or even
death. A hematocrit this low is a more urgent concern than the other options, which are all related to hypothyroidism but
are not as immediately life-threatening.
Page 1 of 61
,Question 3
Question 3 of 55
The nurse is caring for a client with a burn that is severely edematous with a wound bed that is brown and
yellow in appearance. The client expresses feeling no pain. Which classification of burn depth should the
nurse document?
- A Deep full-thickness.
- B Full thickness.
- C Deep partial-thickness.
- D Superficial partial-thickness.
Correct Answer
- B Full thickness.
Rationale:
The nurse should document "B Full thickness" because the wound bed is brown and yellow in appearance, indicating a full-
thickness burn, which means the epidermis and dermis are damaged, leading to a loss of skin integrity. The client's lack of
pain is not a reliable indicator of burn depth, as some people may experience little to no pain due to the intense
inflammation and edema caused by the burn.
Page 2 of 61
,Question 4
Question 4 of 55
An older client who is agitated, dyspneic, orthopneic, and using accessory muscles to breathe is admitted
for further treatment. Initial assessment includes a heart rate 128 beats/minute and irregular, respirations 38
breaths/minute, blood pressure 168/100 mm Hg, wheezes and crackles in all lung fields. An hour after the
administration of furosemide 60 mg intravenous (IV), which assessment(s) should the nurse obtain to
determine the client's response to treatment? (Select all that apply.)
- A Urinary output.
- B Oxygen saturation.
- C Pain scale.
- D Lung sounds.
- E Skin elasticity.
Correct Answer
- A Urinary output.
- B Oxygen saturation.
- D Lung sounds.
Orthopneic position, sometimes called tripod position, is a sitting position where an individual leans
slightly forward with their arms propped up on an overbed table or their knees.
Orthopnea is the sensation of breathlessness in the recumbent (lying down) position, relieved by sitting or
standing.
Rationale:
The correct answers are A, B, and D because they assess the client's pulmonary and cardiovascular response to treatment,
which is crucial in managing breathlessness and dyspnea. By evaluating urinary output, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds,
the nurse can monitor the client's response to furosemide, a diuretic medication that may alleviate pulmonary congestion
and improve respiratory function.
Page 3 of 61
, Question 5
Question 5 of 55
A client is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and needs to begin dialysis. Which condition entered on
the client's medical record should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for peritoneal dialysis?
- A Nephrotic syndrome history.
- B Crohn's disease with colectomy.
- C Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- D Latent hepatitis C.
Correct Answer
- B Crohn's disease with colectomy.
Question # 5
Rationale - B Crohn's disease with colectomy.
The nurse should recognize that clients with extensive intra-abdominal surgical history are not candidates
for peritoneal dialysis, as these clients may have decreased peritoneal membrane surface areas and scar
tissue formation, which would make it insufficient for adequate dialysis exchange.
Rationale:
Crohn's disease with colectomy is a contraindication for peritoneal dialysis because the extensive intra-abdominal surgical
history can result in decreased peritoneal membrane surface areas and scar tissue formation, making it insufficient for
adequate dialysis exchange. This is a critical consideration for the nurse, as peritoneal dialysis relies on the integrity and
function of the peritoneal membrane to effectively remove waste products from the blood.
Question 6
Question 6 of 55
The nurse assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive
ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?
- A Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation.
- B Hyperaldosteronism causing an increased sodium reabsorption in renal tubules.
- C Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to an increase in renal blood flow.
- D Hypoalbuminemia that results in a decreased colloidal oncotic pressure.
Correct Answer
- D Hypoalbuminemia that results in a decreased colloidal oncotic pressure.
The three main things that the liver produces are albumin, bile (digestive enzymes), and prothrombin
(clotting factors).
Albumin plays many important roles including maintenance of appropriate osmotic pressure, binding and
transport of various substances like hormones, drugs etc. in blood, and neutralisation of free radicals. It
prevents fluid from leaking out of blood vessels into your tissues. Albumin is also responsible for
transporting vitamins, enzymes and hormones throughout your body. Albumin makes up 50% of the
proteins found in your plasma.
Rationale:
Hypoalbuminemia in cirrhosis patients leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure, as albumin plays a crucial role in
maintaining osmotic pressure and preventing fluid leakage from blood vessels into tissues. As a result, fluid accumulates in
interstitial spaces, causing pitting edema and ascites, which is characteristic of patients with cirrhosis.
Page 4 of 61
questions, BSN HESI 266, Hesi - 266 multiple
choice (2025-2026 UPDATE) with Questions
and Verified Rationalized Answers, 100%
Guarantee Pass
100% Verified Passing Score Guaranteed Expert Rationales Included
Question 1
Question 1 of 55
The nurse is evaluating a client's understanding about the DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
eating plan. Which behavior indicates that the client is adhering to the eating plan?
- A Uses only lactose-free dairy products.
- B Carefully cleans and peels all fresh fruit and vegetables.
- C No longer incudes grains in daily diet.
- D Enjoys fat-free yogurt as an occasional snack food.
Correct Answer
- D Enjoys fat-free yogurt as an occasional snack food.
Rationale:
The DASH eating plan emphasizes whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, as well as low-fat dairy products, and does not
require lactose-free or fat-free products exclusively. Therefore, option D, "Enjoys fat-free yogurt as an occasional snack food",
is the correct answer as it indicates that the client is adhering to the plan's guideline of choosing low-fat dairy products.
Question 2
Question 2 of 55
A client who has a history of hypothyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which
additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse? [Hematocrit (Reference Range: Male:
42% to 52% (0.42 to 0.52 volume fraction)]
- A Further decline in level of consciousness.
- B Hematocrit of 30% (0.30 volume fraction)
- C Cold and dry skin.
- D Facial puffiness and periorbital edema
Correct Answer
- A Further decline in level of consciousness.
Rationale:
A hematocrit of 30% (0.30 volume fraction) is a critical finding that warrants immediate action because it indicates severe
dehydration, which can lead to a further decline in the client's level of consciousness, potentially causing harm or even
death. A hematocrit this low is a more urgent concern than the other options, which are all related to hypothyroidism but
are not as immediately life-threatening.
Page 1 of 61
,Question 3
Question 3 of 55
The nurse is caring for a client with a burn that is severely edematous with a wound bed that is brown and
yellow in appearance. The client expresses feeling no pain. Which classification of burn depth should the
nurse document?
- A Deep full-thickness.
- B Full thickness.
- C Deep partial-thickness.
- D Superficial partial-thickness.
Correct Answer
- B Full thickness.
Rationale:
The nurse should document "B Full thickness" because the wound bed is brown and yellow in appearance, indicating a full-
thickness burn, which means the epidermis and dermis are damaged, leading to a loss of skin integrity. The client's lack of
pain is not a reliable indicator of burn depth, as some people may experience little to no pain due to the intense
inflammation and edema caused by the burn.
Page 2 of 61
,Question 4
Question 4 of 55
An older client who is agitated, dyspneic, orthopneic, and using accessory muscles to breathe is admitted
for further treatment. Initial assessment includes a heart rate 128 beats/minute and irregular, respirations 38
breaths/minute, blood pressure 168/100 mm Hg, wheezes and crackles in all lung fields. An hour after the
administration of furosemide 60 mg intravenous (IV), which assessment(s) should the nurse obtain to
determine the client's response to treatment? (Select all that apply.)
- A Urinary output.
- B Oxygen saturation.
- C Pain scale.
- D Lung sounds.
- E Skin elasticity.
Correct Answer
- A Urinary output.
- B Oxygen saturation.
- D Lung sounds.
Orthopneic position, sometimes called tripod position, is a sitting position where an individual leans
slightly forward with their arms propped up on an overbed table or their knees.
Orthopnea is the sensation of breathlessness in the recumbent (lying down) position, relieved by sitting or
standing.
Rationale:
The correct answers are A, B, and D because they assess the client's pulmonary and cardiovascular response to treatment,
which is crucial in managing breathlessness and dyspnea. By evaluating urinary output, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds,
the nurse can monitor the client's response to furosemide, a diuretic medication that may alleviate pulmonary congestion
and improve respiratory function.
Page 3 of 61
, Question 5
Question 5 of 55
A client is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and needs to begin dialysis. Which condition entered on
the client's medical record should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for peritoneal dialysis?
- A Nephrotic syndrome history.
- B Crohn's disease with colectomy.
- C Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- D Latent hepatitis C.
Correct Answer
- B Crohn's disease with colectomy.
Question # 5
Rationale - B Crohn's disease with colectomy.
The nurse should recognize that clients with extensive intra-abdominal surgical history are not candidates
for peritoneal dialysis, as these clients may have decreased peritoneal membrane surface areas and scar
tissue formation, which would make it insufficient for adequate dialysis exchange.
Rationale:
Crohn's disease with colectomy is a contraindication for peritoneal dialysis because the extensive intra-abdominal surgical
history can result in decreased peritoneal membrane surface areas and scar tissue formation, making it insufficient for
adequate dialysis exchange. This is a critical consideration for the nurse, as peritoneal dialysis relies on the integrity and
function of the peritoneal membrane to effectively remove waste products from the blood.
Question 6
Question 6 of 55
The nurse assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive
ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?
- A Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation.
- B Hyperaldosteronism causing an increased sodium reabsorption in renal tubules.
- C Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to an increase in renal blood flow.
- D Hypoalbuminemia that results in a decreased colloidal oncotic pressure.
Correct Answer
- D Hypoalbuminemia that results in a decreased colloidal oncotic pressure.
The three main things that the liver produces are albumin, bile (digestive enzymes), and prothrombin
(clotting factors).
Albumin plays many important roles including maintenance of appropriate osmotic pressure, binding and
transport of various substances like hormones, drugs etc. in blood, and neutralisation of free radicals. It
prevents fluid from leaking out of blood vessels into your tissues. Albumin is also responsible for
transporting vitamins, enzymes and hormones throughout your body. Albumin makes up 50% of the
proteins found in your plasma.
Rationale:
Hypoalbuminemia in cirrhosis patients leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure, as albumin plays a crucial role in
maintaining osmotic pressure and preventing fluid leakage from blood vessels into tissues. As a result, fluid accumulates in
interstitial spaces, causing pitting edema and ascites, which is characteristic of patients with cirrhosis.
Page 4 of 61
