ALL THE COMSAE FINAL EXAM STUDY
GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
LATEST VERSION
1. drug for UC/Crohns - ANSWER sulfasalazine
2. pulmonary effects of CF - ANSWER chronic bronchitis an
dbronchiectasis
3. osteoporosis affects what parts of bone? - ANSWER (spongy and )
trabecular bone mass loss
4. imipramine - ANSWER TCA
SE: Tri-Cs
convulsions
coma
cardiotox
antichol effects- confusion in elderly; (acute glaucoma and orthostatic
hypotension- block alpha1)
5. viscerosomatic - ANSWER visceral disease -- somatic finding
6. loratidine vs ranitidine - ANSWER loratidine: 2nd gen H1 blocker, doesnt
cross BBB -- less sedating
ranitidine: H2 receptor antagonist (like cimetidine)
7. cells w RBCs inside - ANSWER entaemoba histolytica
8. which type of pneumothorax causes tracheal deviation to the contra side? -
ANSWER tension
9. intracerebral hemorrhage adjacent to a lesion that contains a tangle of
numerous tortuous vessels - ANSWER AVM arteriovenous malformation
10. cavernous hemangioma - ANSWER benign tumor of liver, A/W VHL
11. anti-HepB surface antibody is only present in what pop - ANSWER
recovered or immunized
not in chronic or
12. proctalgia fugax - ANSWER levator ani syndrome
13. fasciculus is UMN or LMN lesion? - ANSWER LMN
14. ectopic gastric tissue - ANSWER meckels diverticulum
can also have ectopic pancreatic tissue
remnant of vitelline duct
15. antibodies in hashimotos attacks - ANSWER thyroid peroxidase or
antithyroglobulin
enlarged non tender thyroid
16. 2 factors that influence starling curve - ANSWER x axis- preload (EDV)
y axis- stroke volume or CO
17. treatment for fibromyalgia - ANSWER TCA, SNRIs anticonvulsants
18. what blocks NE reuptake? - ANSWER TCA or SNRIs
19. possible complication of pagets bone disease - ANSWER osteocarcoma
20. what does Hct tell you? - ANSWER ratio of volume of RBCs compared to
total blood volume
21. Hand Grip Maneuver - ANSWER increases systemic vascular resistance
increases the intensity of MR, AR, VSD, MVP murmurs
decreases the intensity of AS, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs.
22. Valsava Maneuver - ANSWER decreases venous return
decreases the intensity of most murmurs
increases the intensity of MVP, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs
23. Rapid Squatting Maneuver - ANSWER increases venous return, increases
preload, increases afterload with prolonged squatting.
24. Mitral Regurgitation - ANSWER Holosystolic, high pitched "blowing
murmur" that is loudest at the apex and radiates toward the axilla. enhances
by maneuvers that increase TPR like squatting and hand grip or LA return
like expiration. MR is often due to ischemic heart dsease, MVP or LV
dilation. Rheumatic fever and infective endocarditis can cause either MR or
TR
25. Tricuspid regurgitation - ANSWER holosystolic, high pitched "blowing
murmur" that is loudest at the tricuspid area and radiates to right sternal
border. Enhanced by maneuvers that increase RA return (e.g. inspiration).
TR can be caused by RV dilation. Rheumatic fever and infective
endocarditis can cause either MR or TR
26. Aortic Stenosis - ANSWER Crescendo - Decrescendo systolic ejection
murmur follwing ejection click. The ejection clic is due to abrupt halting of
valve leaflets). LV aortic pressure during systole. radiates to
carotids/heart base. "pulsus parvus et tardus"- pulses are weak with a delayes
peak. can lead to syncope, angina, and dyspnea on exertion (SAD). Often
due to age - related calcific aortic stenosis or bicuspid aortic valve.
27. VSD - ANSWER Holosystolic hardh sounding murmur. loudest at
tricuspid area, accentuated with hand grip maneuver due to increased
afterload.
28. Mitral Valve Prolapse - ANSWER Late systolic crescendo murmur with
midsystolic clid. Midsystolic click is due to sudden tensing of chordae
tendineae. Most frequent valvular lesion. best heard over apex. loudest at S2.
usually benign. can predispose to infective endocarditis. Can be caused by
myxomatous degeneration (in developing countries), rheumatic fever, or
chordae rupture. enhanced by maneuvers that decrease venous return (e.g.
standing or valsalva)
29. Aortic Regurgitation - ANSWER immediate high pitched blowing
diastolic decrescendo murmur. wife pulse pressure when chronic. can
present with bounding pulses and head bobbing. often due to aortic root
dilation, bicuspid aortic valve, endocarditis, or rheumatic fever. increased
murmer during hand gri. vasodilators decrease the intensity of the murmur.
30. Mitral Stenosis - ANSWER follows opening snap which is due to abrupt
halt in leaflet motion in diastole, after rapid opening due to fusion at leaflet
tips. delayes rumbling late diastolic murmur. LALV pressure during
diastole. often occurs secondary to rheumatic fever. chronic MS can result in
LA dilation. Enhanced by maneuvers that increase LA return (e.g.
expiration)
31. PDA - ANSWER continuous machine like murmer. loudest at S2. often
due to congenital rubella or prematurity. best heard at left infraclavicular
area.
32. normal pressure in the right atrium is? - ANSWER 5 mmHg
33. normal pressure in the right ventricle? - ANSWER 25/5 mmHg
34. normal pressure in the left atrium? - ANSWER 12 mmHg
35. normal pressure in the left ventricle? - ANSWER 130/0 mmHg
36. normal pressure in ascending aorta/ aortic arch? - ANSWER 130/90
mmHg
37. normal pressure in pulmonary artery/pulmonary trunk? - ANSWER 25/10
mmHg
pulmonary artery is where PCWP is measures and is usually 12 mmHg.
PCWP in mmHg is a good approximation of left atrial pressure. In mitral
stenosis, PCWP is greater than LV diastolic pressure.
PCWP is measures with a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan - Ganz catheter).
38. Hyaline Casts - ANSWER solidified Tamm - Horsfall mucoprotein that is
secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons. They are
increased in the urine when there is low urine flow, concentrated urine, or an
acidic renal environment. Therefore, they are commonly increased in
individuals with normal renal function who are severely dehydrated or after
vigorous excercise.
39. Fatty Casts - ANSWER most commonly associated with nephrotic
syndrome. Patients with nephrotic syndrome have hyperlipidemia and
lipiduria because increased liver production of albumin leads indirectly to an
increase in LDL and VLDL synthesis. Fatty casts form as the resultant lipid - rich epithelial cells are broken down in the glomeruli.
40. HLA-A3 - ANSWER associated with hemochromatosis
41. HLA-B8 - ANSWER associated with Grave's Disease
42. HLA-B27 - ANSWER associated with psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing
spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease and reiters syndrome.
43. HLA-DR3 - ANSWER associated with DM type 1
44. maneuvers that increase pre load - ANSWER mueller maneuver
squatting
45. maneuver that increases afterload - ANSWER handgrip
46. maneuvers that decrease preload - ANSWER valsalva and standing
47. Metoclopramide - ANSWER an antiemetic and prokinetic drug for the GI
tract. It stimulates peristalsis by antagonizing D2 (dopamine) receptors,
thereby increasing resting tone, contractility LES tone, and overall motility.
Used to treat Diabetic gastroporesis
SE - extrapyramidal symptoms like parkinsonism and dystonia.
48. Meclizine - ANSWER an antihistamine used for nausea and motion
sickness. it has anticholinergic properties and can thus produe drowsiness
and dry mouth
49. Anion Gap Equation - ANSWER Na-Cl-bicarb
normal is bw 8-16
50. MUDPILERS - ANSWER Methanol
Uremia
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Propylene Glycol
Isoniazid
Lactic Acidosis
Ethylene Glycol/ Alcohol
Renal Failure (chronic)
Salicylates (aspirin)
51. Alzheimer Disease - ANSWER decrease acetylcholine level from a
deficiency of choline acetyltransferase most notably in the basal nucleus of
meynert which participates in memory and cognition
also decreased levels in the hippocampus
52. trousseaus sign - ANSWER occlusion of brachial arter with BP cuff
which leads to carpal spasm.
present in hypoparathyroidism
53. Pseudohypoparathydoidism - ANSWER Albrights hereditary
osteodystrophy autosomal dominant kidney unresponsiveness to PTH. leads
to hypocalcemia, shortened 4th/5th digits, short stature.
54. Trousseau's Syndrome - ANSWER a migratory thrombophlebitis -
presents with redness and tenderness on palpation of extremities. associated
with a visceral malignancy mostly pancreatic adenocarcinoma or
adenocarcinoma of the colon and lung etc.
55. treatment for legionares? - ANSWER respiratory floroquinolone
56. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia - ANSWER bone is replaced by fibroblasts,
collagen and irregular bony trabeculae.
57. McCune-Albright Syndrome - ANSWER a form of polyostotic fibrous
dysplasia characterized by multiple unilateral bone lesions associated with
endocrine abnormalities (precocious puberty) and cafe au lait spots.
58. treatment for tinea versicolor - ANSWER selenium sulfatide, topical
miconazole
59. Papillary thyroid carcinoma - ANSWER malignant - good prognosis,
lymphatic spread, most common thyroid cancer, papillary growth with
optically clear nuclie (orphan annie nuclie) (ground glass chromatin)
60. Clomiphine - ANSWER a SERM that inhibits negative feedback of
estrogen in the hypothalamus on gonadotropin release causing an increased
release of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary glans which stimulates
ovulation. It is used to treat infertility in the setting of PCOS.
61. Osteitis fibrosa cystica - ANSWER bone pain, subperiosteal bone
resorption on the radial aspect of middle phalanges along with brown tumors
of the long bones.
62. Carcinoid Syndrome - ANSWER flushing wheezing, diahrrea and right
sided valvular lesions especially tricuspid regurgitation. needs to have
metastasized to the liver because if not and its in the GI tract it is subject to
first pass effect so you will not see symptoms.
63. causes of epiddymitis 35 yo - ANSWER ecoli, pseudomonas, proteus
64. causes of epididymitis 35 yo - ANSWER chlamydia, gonnohrea.
65. Fanconi's syndrome - ANSWER proximal tubular reabsorption defect
polyuria, renal tubular acidosis type II, growth failure, electrolyte
imbalances, hypophosphatemic rickets.
66. GP120 - ANSWER HIV docking protein in viral envelope, formed from
cleavage of GP160. responsible for attachment to host CD4+ T cell.
ENV
67. GP41 - ANSWER HIV transmembrane protein in viral envelope, formed
from cleavage of gp160. responsible for fusion and entry.
ENV
68. p24 - ANSWER gag - HIV capsid protein
69. pol codes for? - ANSWER reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease,
integrase.
70. B1 - ANSWER thiamine: TPP
71. B2 - ANSWER riboflavin: FAD, FMN
72. B3 - ANSWER Niacin: NAD+
73. B5 - ANSWER pantothenic acid: CoA
74. B6 - ANSWER pyridoxine: PLP
75. B7 - ANSWER biotin
76. B9 - ANSWER folate
77. B12 - ANSWER cobalamin
78. vitamin C - ANSWER ascorbic acid
79. water solble vitamins - ANSWER all wash out easily from body except
B12 and folate which are stored in the liver.
B complex deficiencies often result in dermatitis, glossitis and diarrhea
80. Fat soluble vitamins - ANSWER ADEK. absorption is dependent on the
gut (ileum) and pancrease. Toxicity is more common than for water soluble
vitamins, because these accumulate in fat. Malabsorption syndromes
(steatorrhea, such as cystic fibrosis and sprue, or mineral oil intake can cause
fat soluble vitamin deficiencies.
81. Functions of Vitamin A (retinol) - ANSWER Antioxidant; constituent of
visual pigments (retinal); essential for normal differentiation of epithelial
cells into specialized tissue (pancreatic cells, mucus-secreting cells);
prevents squamous metaplasia. used to treat measles and AML, subtype M3.
used for wrinkles and acne. found in liver and leafy vegetables.
82. Vitamin A (retinol) deficiency - ANSWER causes night blindness and dry
skin
83. Vitamin A (retinol) excess - ANSWER causes arthralgias, fatigue,
headaches, skin changes, sore throat, alopecia. Teratogenic (cleft palate,
cardiac abnormalities, microcephaly), so a negative pregnancy test and
reliable contraception are needed before isotretinoin is prescribed for severe
acne.
acute excess vit A causes nasaue vomiting, vertigo and blurred vision.
84. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) functions - ANSWER in thiamine pyrophosphate
(TPP) a cofactor for several enzymes in decarboxylation reactions: 1)
pyruvate dehydrogenase (links glycolysis to TCA cycle) 2) alpha
ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (TCA cycle) 3) transketolase 4) branched chain
amino acid dehydrogenase.
85. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) defieincy - ANSWER impaired glucose
breakdown leading to ATP depletion worsened by glucose infusionl highly
aerobic tissues (brain and heart) are affected first. wenicke-korsakoff
syndrome and beriberi. Seen in malnutrition as well as alcoholism (2ndary to
malnutrition and malabsorption)
86. Wernicke Korsakoff - ANSWER confusion, opthalmoplegia, ataxia
(classic triad)+ confabulation, personality change, memory loss (permanent)
damage to medial dorsal nucleus of thalamus, mamillary bodies.
87. Dry Beribery - ANSWER polyneuritis, symmetrical muscle wasting
88. Wet beriberi - ANSWER high output cardiac failure (dilated
cardiomyopathy) edema.
89. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) function - ANSWER cofactor in oxydation and
reduction (e.g. FADH2)
FAD and FMN are derived from riboflavin
(B2 = 2ATP)
90. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency - ANSWER cheilosis (inflammation of
lips, scaling and fissures at the corners of the mouth), corneal
vascularization.
91. Vitamin B3 (niacin) function - ANSWER constituent of NAD+, NADP+
(used in redox reactions) derived from tryptophan. synthesis requires B6.
NAD is derived from Niacin (B3 = 3ATP)
92. Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency - ANSWER glossitis. severe deficiency
leads to pellagra which can be caused by hartnup disease (deficiency in
tryptophan absorption), malignant carcinoid syndrome (increased tryptophan
metabolism) and INH (decreased vitamin B6). symptoms of pellagro are
diarrhea, dementia, dermititis and death.
93. Vitamin B3 (niacin) excess - ANSWER facial flushing (due to
pharmacologic doses for treatment of hyperlipidemia)
94. Vitamin B5 (pantothenate) function - ANSWER essential component of
CoA (a cofactor for acyl B5 is "pento" thenate. transfers) and fatty acid
synthase.
95. Vitamin B5 (pantothenate) deficiency - ANSWER dermatitis, enteritis,
alopecia, adrenal insufficiency.
Content preview
ALL THE COMSAE FINAL EXAM STUDY
GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<LATEST VERSION>
1. drug for UC/Crohns - ANSWER ✓ sulfasalazine
2. pulmonary effects of CF - ANSWER ✓ chronic bronchitis an
dbronchiectasis
3. osteoporosis affects what parts of bone? - ANSWER ✓ (spongy and )
trabecular bone mass loss
4. imipramine - ANSWER ✓ TCA
SE: Tri-Cs
convulsions
coma
cardiotox
antichol effects- confusion in elderly; (acute glaucoma and orthostatic
hypotension- block alpha1)
5. viscerosomatic - ANSWER ✓ visceral disease --> somatic finding
6. loratidine vs ranitidine - ANSWER ✓ loratidine: 2nd gen H1 blocker, doesnt
cross BBB --> less sedating
, ranitidine: H2 receptor antagonist (like cimetidine)
7. cells w RBCs inside - ANSWER ✓ entaemoba histolytica
8. which type of pneumothorax causes tracheal deviation to the contra side? -
ANSWER ✓ tension
9. intracerebral hemorrhage adjacent to a lesion that contains a tangle of
numerous tortuous vessels - ANSWER ✓ AVM arteriovenous malformation
10.cavernous hemangioma - ANSWER ✓ benign tumor of liver, A/W VHL
11.anti-HepB surface antibody is only present in what pop - ANSWER ✓
recovered or immunized
not in chronic or
12.proctalgia fugax - ANSWER ✓ levator ani syndrome
13.fasciculus is UMN or LMN lesion? - ANSWER ✓ LMN
14.ectopic gastric tissue - ANSWER ✓ meckels diverticulum
can also have ectopic pancreatic tissue
remnant of vitelline duct
15.antibodies in hashimotos attacks - ANSWER ✓ thyroid peroxidase or
antithyroglobulin
enlarged non tender thyroid
16.2 factors that influence starling curve - ANSWER ✓ x axis- preload (EDV)
y axis- stroke volume or CO
17.treatment for fibromyalgia - ANSWER ✓ TCA, SNRIs anticonvulsants
18.what blocks NE reuptake? - ANSWER ✓ TCA or SNRIs
,19.possible complication of pagets bone disease - ANSWER ✓ osteocarcoma
20.what does Hct tell you? - ANSWER ✓ ratio of volume of RBCs compared to
total blood volume
21.Hand Grip Maneuver - ANSWER ✓ increases systemic vascular resistance
increases the intensity of MR, AR, VSD, MVP murmurs
decreases the intensity of AS, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs.
22.Valsava Maneuver - ANSWER ✓ decreases venous return
decreases the intensity of most murmurs
increases the intensity of MVP, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs
23.Rapid Squatting Maneuver - ANSWER ✓ increases venous return, increases
preload, increases afterload with prolonged squatting.
24.Mitral Regurgitation - ANSWER ✓ Holosystolic, high pitched "blowing
murmur" that is loudest at the apex and radiates toward the axilla. enhances
by maneuvers that increase TPR like squatting and hand grip or LA return
like expiration. MR is often due to ischemic heart dsease, MVP or LV
dilation. Rheumatic fever and infective endocarditis can cause either MR or
TR
25.Tricuspid regurgitation - ANSWER ✓ holosystolic, high pitched "blowing
murmur" that is loudest at the tricuspid area and radiates to right sternal
border. Enhanced by maneuvers that increase RA return (e.g. inspiration).
TR can be caused by RV dilation. Rheumatic fever and infective
endocarditis can cause either MR or TR
26.Aortic Stenosis - ANSWER ✓ Crescendo - Decrescendo systolic ejection
murmur follwing ejection click. The ejection clic is due to abrupt halting of
valve leaflets). LV>> aortic pressure during systole. radiates to
carotids/heart base. "pulsus parvus et tardus"- pulses are weak with a delayes
peak. can lead to syncope, angina, and dyspnea on exertion (SAD). Often
due to age - related calcific aortic stenosis or bicuspid aortic valve.
, 27.VSD - ANSWER ✓ Holosystolic hardh sounding murmur. loudest at
tricuspid area, accentuated with hand grip maneuver due to increased
afterload.
28.Mitral Valve Prolapse - ANSWER ✓ Late systolic crescendo murmur with
midsystolic clid. Midsystolic click is due to sudden tensing of chordae
tendineae. Most frequent valvular lesion. best heard over apex. loudest at S2.
usually benign. can predispose to infective endocarditis. Can be caused by
myxomatous degeneration (in developing countries), rheumatic fever, or
chordae rupture. enhanced by maneuvers that decrease venous return (e.g.
standing or valsalva)
29.Aortic Regurgitation - ANSWER ✓ immediate high pitched blowing
diastolic decrescendo murmur. wife pulse pressure when chronic. can
present with bounding pulses and head bobbing. often due to aortic root
dilation, bicuspid aortic valve, endocarditis, or rheumatic fever. increased
murmer during hand gri. vasodilators decrease the intensity of the murmur.
30.Mitral Stenosis - ANSWER ✓ follows opening snap which is due to abrupt
halt in leaflet motion in diastole, after rapid opening due to fusion at leaflet
tips. delayes rumbling late diastolic murmur. LA>>LV pressure during
diastole. often occurs secondary to rheumatic fever. chronic MS can result in
LA dilation. Enhanced by maneuvers that increase LA return (e.g.
expiration)
31.PDA - ANSWER ✓ continuous machine like murmer. loudest at S2. often
due to congenital rubella or prematurity. best heard at left infraclavicular
area.
32.normal pressure in the right atrium is? - ANSWER ✓ <5 mmHg
33.normal pressure in the right ventricle? - ANSWER ✓ 25/5 mmHg
34.normal pressure in the left atrium? - ANSWER ✓ <12 mmHg
35.normal pressure in the left ventricle? - ANSWER ✓ 130/0 mmHg