EXAM WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
WELL VERIFIED ANSWERS || RATIONALE
AVAILABLE || ALREADY GRADED A+ ||
GUARANTEED PASS || LATEST UPDATE 2025
A client who is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis is prescribed
colchicine USP, 1 mg PO daily. Which information is most important for the
nurse to provide the client?
A. Take the medication with meals.
B. Limit fluid intake until the attack subsides.
C. Stop the medication when the pain resolves.
D. Report any vomiting to the clinic. - ANSWER-D. Report any vomiting to the
clinic.
The client should be instructed to report signs of colchicine toxicity, such as
nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain, to the health care provider.
Food inhibits the absorption of colchicine when ingested concurrently. Limited
fluid intake decreases the excretion of the uric acid crystals, which contributes
to painful attacks. Typically, a client should remain on a daily dose of
colchicine to decrease the number and severity of acute attacks, so stopping the
medication after the pain resolves is not indicated.
Amoxicillin, 500 mg PO every 8 hours, is prescribed for a client with an
infection. The drug is available in a suspension of 125 mg/5 mL. How many
milliliters should the nurse administer with each dose?
A. 10
,B. 15
C. 20
D. 25 - ANSWER-C. 20
500 mg/x mL = 125 mg/5 mL
125x = 2500
x = 20 mL
Methenamine mandelate is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection
and renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is
effective?
A. The frequency of urinary tract infections decreases.
B. The urine changes color and pain is diminished.
C. The dipstick test changes from +1 to trace.
D. The daily urinary output increases by 10%. - ANSWER-A. The frequency of
urinary tract infections decreases.
Mandelamine is prescribed to acidify the urine, decreasing the incidence of
calcium phosphate calculi and urinary tract infections. Option B is related to the
administration of pyridine. Mandelamine has no effect on option C or D.
Two hours after taking the first dose of penicillin, a client arrives at the
emergency department complaining of feeling ill, exhibiting hives, having
difficulty breathing, and experiencing hypotension. These findings are
consistent with which client response that requires immediate action?
A. Severe acute anaphylactic response
B. Side reaction that should resolve
C. Idiosyncratic reaction
,D. Cumulative drug response - ANSWER-A. Severe acute anaphylactic
response
Anaphylaxis related to penicillin can cause a life-threatening allergic response
characterized by bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and a precipitous drop in
blood pressure. This client's ingestion of penicillin and presenting clinical
picture indicate the client is having an acute reaction with respiratory difficulty.
Options B, C, and D are other physiologic responses to medications, but
immediate action is required for a potential loss of airway, breathing, and
circulation.
Which class of antineoplastic chemotherapy agents resembles the essential
elements required for DNA and RNA synthesis and inhibits enzymes necessary
for cellular function and replication?
A. Alkylating agents
B. Antimetabolites
C. Antitumor antibiotics
D. Plant alkaloids - ANSWER-B. Antimetabolites
Antimetabolites exert their action by inhibiting the enzymes necessary for
cellular function and replication. Options A, C, and D have a different
mechanism of action.
Which statement indicates that client teaching regarding the administration of
the chemotherapeutic agent daunorubicin HCl has been effective?
A. "I should use an astringent mouthwash after every meal."
B. "I will eat high-fiber foods and drink lots of water."
C. "I expect my urine to be red for the next few days."
, D. "I should use sunscreen when I spend time outdoors." - ANSWER-C. "I
expect my urine to be red for the next few days."
Daunorubicin HCl causes the urine to turn red in color. Option A is not
recommended. Options B and D are interventions that promote general good
health but are not specific to treatment with daunorubicin HCl.
When providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate
(Ritalin) to a parent of a child diagnosed with ADHD, which instruction should
the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. The doses should be given exactly 12 hours apart to sustain a therapeutic
serum level.
B. Doses should be scheduled at midmorning and midafternoon to achieve
optimal benefit.
C. Give the medication only on school days and when the child appears to be
anxious.
D. Offer the child the medication with breakfast and after the child eats lunch. -
ANSWER-D. Offer the child the medication with breakfast and after the child
eats lunch.
Administering the medication at breakfast and after lunch provides the correct
spacing of the doses to maximize the child's attention span and helps prevent the
appetite suppression associated with the drug. Doses should be spaced at 6-hour
intervals, not option A. Option B is likely to increase insomnia. Option C
disrupts the normal dosing schedule, resulting in ineffective treatment. Doses
should be discontinued only for brief intervals (with the health care provider's
approval) when the client's condition is being evaluated or if the client is being
weaned from the medication entirely.
A client who is HIV-positive is receiving combination therapy with the antiviral
medication zidovudine. Which instruction should the nurse include in this
client's teaching plan?