1
AMLS Post Test Actual Exam 2025/2026 –
Bundle of 3 Latest Versions with 150 Verified NG
Questions & Correct Answers | Advanced
Medical Life Support | A+ Graded
Question 1
A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive with shallow respirations and pinpoint pupils. There is
vomitus around the mouth. What is the priority action?
A. Administer naloxone IV
B. Obtain a blood glucose level
C. Supplemental oxygen and suction
D. Begin bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation
Explanation: The presentation suggests opioid overdose (pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations,
unresponsiveness). The priority is to secure the airway and improve oxygenation by clearing
vomitus with suction and providing supplemental oxygen. Naloxone is appropriate but not the
first action until the airway is managed.
Question 2
A patient with COPD presents with acute shortness of breath and wheezing. Which condition is
most likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Pneumonia
C. Angioedema
D. Asthma exacerbation
Explanation: Acute shortness of breath in a COPD patient is often due to a pulmonary
embolism, which can mimic or complicate COPD symptoms. Pneumonia may present with
fever, and angioedema typically involves swelling. Asthma is less likely in a known COPD
patient.
Question 3
, 2
During compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system causes:
A. Vasodilation and sodium loss
B. Increased preload, afterload, and sodium reabsorption
C. Hypotension and bradycardia
D. Decreased cardiac output
Explanation: In compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated to
increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction (increasing afterload), fluid retention
(increasing preload), and sodium reabsorption to maintain volume.
Question 4
A 60-year-old female reports chest pain described as "aching" for several days with a
temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F). Which finding supports a diagnosis of pericarditis?
A. Pain relieved when supine
B. S3 gallop on auscultation
C. ST-segment elevation in multiple leads
D. Pulsus alternans
Explanation: Pericarditis often presents with diffuse ST-segment elevation on a 12-lead ECG
due to widespread inflammation. Pain is typically worse when supine, and S3 gallop or pulsus
alternans are more associated with heart failure.
Question 5
Which condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis in a patient?
A. Anxiety attack
B. Narcotic overdose
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Methanol ingestion
Explanation: Narcotic overdose causes respiratory depression, leading to CO2 retention and
respiratory acidosis. Anxiety may cause respiratory alkalosis, while diabetic ketoacidosis and
methanol ingestion cause metabolic acidosis.
Question 6
, 3
A patient presents with hypotension, muffled heart tones, and jugular vein distension. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism
Explanation: The Beck’s triad (hypotension, muffled heart tones, jugular vein distension) is
classic for cardiac tamponade, where fluid compresses the heart, impairing filling and causing
obstructive shock.
Question 7
A 22-year-old with severe asthma is not responding to nebulizer treatments. What is the most
appropriate intervention?
A. Administer epinephrine IM
B. Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
C. Perform rapid sequence intubation
D. Give high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula
Explanation: CPAP is effective for severe asthma unresponsive to nebulizers, as it reduces work
of breathing and improves oxygenation. Epinephrine is considered for anaphylaxis, and
intubation is a last resort.
Question 8
A 50-year-old male presents with chest pain and a 12-lead ECG showing ST-segment elevation
in leads V1–V4. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericarditis
B. Anterior wall myocardial infarction
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Aortic dissection
Explanation: ST-segment elevation in V1–V4 indicates an anterior wall myocardial infarction,
typically due to occlusion of the left anterior descending artery. Pericarditis shows diffuse ST
elevation, and pulmonary embolism or dissection have different ECG findings.
Question 9
, 4
A patient with a suspected traumatic brain injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8.
What is the priority action?
A. Administer mannitol IV
B. Secure the airway
C. Obtain a CT scan
D. Start hypertonic saline
Explanation: A GCS of 8 or less indicates severe brain injury and a need for airway protection
to prevent hypoxia and further brain damage. Mannitol or hypertonic saline may be used later,
and a CT scan follows airway stabilization.
Question 10
A 65-year-old female with renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L and goes into cardiac
arrest. After epinephrine, what is the priority medication?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Insulin and glucose
D. Magnesium sulfate
Explanation: Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrest with wide-complex rhythms. Calcium
gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes, making it the priority after epinephrine to restore
rhythm stability.
Question 11
A patient with a history of seizures presents with status epilepticus. Which medication is the
first-line treatment?
A. Phenytoin
B. Lorazepam
C. Levetiracetam
D. Phenobarbital
Explanation: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus due
to its rapid onset and effectiveness in stopping seizures. Other medications may be used as
adjuncts.
Question 12
AMLS Post Test Actual Exam 2025/2026 –
Bundle of 3 Latest Versions with 150 Verified NG
Questions & Correct Answers | Advanced
Medical Life Support | A+ Graded
Question 1
A 45-year-old male is found unresponsive with shallow respirations and pinpoint pupils. There is
vomitus around the mouth. What is the priority action?
A. Administer naloxone IV
B. Obtain a blood glucose level
C. Supplemental oxygen and suction
D. Begin bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation
Explanation: The presentation suggests opioid overdose (pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations,
unresponsiveness). The priority is to secure the airway and improve oxygenation by clearing
vomitus with suction and providing supplemental oxygen. Naloxone is appropriate but not the
first action until the airway is managed.
Question 2
A patient with COPD presents with acute shortness of breath and wheezing. Which condition is
most likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Pneumonia
C. Angioedema
D. Asthma exacerbation
Explanation: Acute shortness of breath in a COPD patient is often due to a pulmonary
embolism, which can mimic or complicate COPD symptoms. Pneumonia may present with
fever, and angioedema typically involves swelling. Asthma is less likely in a known COPD
patient.
Question 3
, 2
During compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system causes:
A. Vasodilation and sodium loss
B. Increased preload, afterload, and sodium reabsorption
C. Hypotension and bradycardia
D. Decreased cardiac output
Explanation: In compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated to
increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction (increasing afterload), fluid retention
(increasing preload), and sodium reabsorption to maintain volume.
Question 4
A 60-year-old female reports chest pain described as "aching" for several days with a
temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F). Which finding supports a diagnosis of pericarditis?
A. Pain relieved when supine
B. S3 gallop on auscultation
C. ST-segment elevation in multiple leads
D. Pulsus alternans
Explanation: Pericarditis often presents with diffuse ST-segment elevation on a 12-lead ECG
due to widespread inflammation. Pain is typically worse when supine, and S3 gallop or pulsus
alternans are more associated with heart failure.
Question 5
Which condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis in a patient?
A. Anxiety attack
B. Narcotic overdose
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Methanol ingestion
Explanation: Narcotic overdose causes respiratory depression, leading to CO2 retention and
respiratory acidosis. Anxiety may cause respiratory alkalosis, while diabetic ketoacidosis and
methanol ingestion cause metabolic acidosis.
Question 6
, 3
A patient presents with hypotension, muffled heart tones, and jugular vein distension. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Pulmonary embolism
Explanation: The Beck’s triad (hypotension, muffled heart tones, jugular vein distension) is
classic for cardiac tamponade, where fluid compresses the heart, impairing filling and causing
obstructive shock.
Question 7
A 22-year-old with severe asthma is not responding to nebulizer treatments. What is the most
appropriate intervention?
A. Administer epinephrine IM
B. Initiate continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
C. Perform rapid sequence intubation
D. Give high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula
Explanation: CPAP is effective for severe asthma unresponsive to nebulizers, as it reduces work
of breathing and improves oxygenation. Epinephrine is considered for anaphylaxis, and
intubation is a last resort.
Question 8
A 50-year-old male presents with chest pain and a 12-lead ECG showing ST-segment elevation
in leads V1–V4. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericarditis
B. Anterior wall myocardial infarction
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Aortic dissection
Explanation: ST-segment elevation in V1–V4 indicates an anterior wall myocardial infarction,
typically due to occlusion of the left anterior descending artery. Pericarditis shows diffuse ST
elevation, and pulmonary embolism or dissection have different ECG findings.
Question 9
, 4
A patient with a suspected traumatic brain injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8.
What is the priority action?
A. Administer mannitol IV
B. Secure the airway
C. Obtain a CT scan
D. Start hypertonic saline
Explanation: A GCS of 8 or less indicates severe brain injury and a need for airway protection
to prevent hypoxia and further brain damage. Mannitol or hypertonic saline may be used later,
and a CT scan follows airway stabilization.
Question 10
A 65-year-old female with renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L and goes into cardiac
arrest. After epinephrine, what is the priority medication?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Insulin and glucose
D. Magnesium sulfate
Explanation: Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrest with wide-complex rhythms. Calcium
gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes, making it the priority after epinephrine to restore
rhythm stability.
Question 11
A patient with a history of seizures presents with status epilepticus. Which medication is the
first-line treatment?
A. Phenytoin
B. Lorazepam
C. Levetiracetam
D. Phenobarbital
Explanation: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus due
to its rapid onset and effectiveness in stopping seizures. Other medications may be used as
adjuncts.
Question 12
